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Let $V$ be a (complex, finite-dimensional) vector space. Suppose that two (finite) groups $A$ and $B$ act on $V$. Furthermore, suppose that these actions commute, so that the direct product $A \times B$ also acts on $V$.

As a representation of $A$, we can decompose $V$ as the direct sum $$ V = \bigoplus_i V_i ,$$ where each $V_i$ is an irreducible representation. And we can do the same by considering $V$ as a representation of $B$, say

$$V = \bigoplus_j V_j' .$$

Also, it is known that every irreducible representation of a direct product of groups $A \times B$ is of the form $V_i \otimes V_j'$, where $V_i$ is irreducible for $A$ and $V_j'$ is irreducible for $B$.

My question is : If I know the two decompositions of $V$ as both a representation of $A$ and of $B$, can I understand its decomposition $$ V = \bigoplus_{i,j} V_i \otimes V_j' $$ into irreducible representations of $A \times B$ in a simple way, or is it a hard problem in general?

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    $\begingroup$ I added "as a rep of" ("as a representation of" wouldn't fit) to the title, to clarify that you are trying to decompose the same vector space as a representation of a different group, not trying to decompose the (tensor) product of two vector spaces, or to decompose in whatever sense the direct product of groups, which were the interpretations that first occurred to me when I read the title. I hope that this was all right. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jun 13, 2022 at 22:20

3 Answers 3

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To be totally clear: no, the decomposition as a representation of $A$ and the decomposition as a representation of $B$ separately don't determine the decomposition as a representation of $A \times B$, because this is not enough information by itself to determine which irreducibles of $A$ pair with which irreducibles of $B$ in general.

The smallest counterexample is $A = B = C_2$ acting on a $2$-dimensional vector space $V$ such that, as a representation of either $A$ or $B$, $V$ decomposes as a direct sum of the trivial representation $1$ and the sign representation $-1$. This means that $V$ could be either $1 \otimes 1 + (-1) \otimes (-1)$ or $1 \otimes (-1) + (-1) \otimes 1$ (the $+$ here is a direct sum but I find writing direct sums and tensor products together annoying to read) and you can't tell which. You can construct a similar counterexample out of any pair of groups $A, B$ which both have non-isomorphic irreducibles of the same dimension.

What you can do instead is the following. If you understand the action of $A$, then you get a canonical decomposition of $V$ as a direct sum

$$V \cong \bigoplus_i V_i \otimes \text{Hom}_A(V_i, V)$$

where $V_i$ are the irreps of $A$ and $\text{Hom}_A(V_i, V)$ is the multiplicity space of $V_i$. If instead of considering the multiplicity space we just write a direct sum of a bunch of copies of $V_i$ that decomposition is not canonical and not unique. The point of doing this canonically is that if the action of $B$ commutes with the action of $A$ then the action of $B$ naturally descends to a family of actions on each multiplicity space $\text{Hom}_A(V_i, V)$. Once you decompose each of these actions into irreps of $B$ then you've understood the entire action of $A \times B$; this is how you prove that result you cite about direct products. Of course you could also start with $B$ instead.

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    $\begingroup$ I think having the example is valuable, but the second part of the answer is what @Evaluate said, isn't it? (I think that it is a good idea to have the subscript $A$ on Hom, as they do, to indicate that it's a hom space of representations, not just of bare vector spaces.) $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jun 13, 2022 at 22:18
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice: yes, but it was very terse, it seemed worth expanding on in a little more detail. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 14, 2022 at 17:56
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You have to understand how $B$ acts on $\operatorname{Hom}_A(V_i, V)$ for an irreducible representation $V_i$ of $A$. This depends on your context.

If you can do that then the evaluation map induces an isomorphism

$$\bigoplus_i V_i \otimes \operatorname{Hom}_A(V_i, V) \to V.$$

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It depends on how well you understand the action. The other answers say "no," but I could just as well say "yes."

If $\lambda$ is an irreducible representation of $A$ and $V_\lambda$ is the $\lambda$-isotypic summand of $V$, that is, the sum of all subrepresentations isomorphic to $\lambda$; and if $\mu$ is a an irreducible representation of $B$ and $V_\mu$ is the $\mu$-isotypic summand of $V$, then the $\lambda\otimes \mu$-isotypic summand of $V$ is $V_\lambda\cap V_\mu$.

Of course, there is only one answer. This is exactly saying that you need to understand how $B$ acts on $V_\lambda$. But since it lies in $V$, that is understanding how $B$ acts on $V$ and how $V_\lambda$ lies in $V$. If you understand $V_\lambda$ and $V_\mu$ as concrete subspaces of $V$, rather than multiplicities, then you do. Specifically, you need to understand them enough to compute their intersection.

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