11
$\begingroup$

This was originally an MSE question, but I was told to ask it on MathOverflow. Does there exist a class $C$ of $L$-structures for a finite signature $L$, which is finitely axiomatizable in first-order logic with equality, but whose equality-free theory $Th(C)$ is not finitely axiomatizable?


Non-OP edit: To clarify, the question is whether the finite $\mathsf{FOL}$-axiomatizability of $Th_\mathsf{FOL}(C)$ necessarily implies the finite $\mathsf{FOL_{w/o=}}$-axiomatizability of $Th_{\mathsf{FOL_{w/o=}}}(C)$, regardless of whether the $\mathsf{FOL}$-deductive closure of $Th_{\mathsf{FOL_{w/o=}}}(C)$ coincides with $Th_\mathsf{FOL}(C)$ or not. (That is, we don't care whether $Mod(Th_{\mathsf{FOL_{w/o=}}}(C))\not=C.$)

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ Are you assuming that the class of structures can be axiomatized by sentences that do not involve equality? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 5, 2022 at 1:45
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @JamesHanson No. In fact, the situation is exactly the opposite. If the equality-free theory is not finitely axiomatizable, then the class can't be axiomatized without using equality. $\endgroup$
    – user107952
    Commented Apr 5, 2022 at 5:03
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I think I see now. You aren't assuming that $Th(C)$ axiomatizes $C$, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 5, 2022 at 21:58
  • $\begingroup$ @JamesHanson Yeah. Also, by $Th$, I mean the first-order theory without equality, not the standard first-order theory with equality. $\endgroup$
    – user107952
    Commented Apr 5, 2022 at 22:09
  • $\begingroup$ Since this confusion came up with the original version of the question as well (repeatedly!), I've added a clarifying edit. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 6, 2022 at 2:01

1 Answer 1

7
$\begingroup$

EDIT: As pointed out by Emil Jerabek in the comments, the argument for relational languages fails in the last step. However, the question is already answered by the example with function symbols.

EDIT: If function symbols are allowed, then this can happen. Let $L=\left\{P, f, a\right\}$, where $P$ is a property symbol, $f$ is a unary function symbol and $a$ is a proper name. Let $C$ be the class of models axiomatized by $P(a)$ and $a=f(a)$.

The equality-free theory of $C$ is axiomatized by $T =\left\{P(a), P(f(a)), P(f(f(a))), ...\right\}$.

In fact, if $M$ is a model of $T$, then a model $N$ of $P(a)\wedge(a=f(a))$ can be obtained from $M$ by taking a quotient (identifying all elements corresponding to $a$, $f(a)$, $f(f(a))$, ... in $M$). The canonical mapping from $M$ to $N$ is elementary for equality-free formulas. Since $N$ is in $C$, $M$ satisfies any equality-free sentence in $C$.

However, $T$ is not finitely axiomatizable.

+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

If $L$ is relational (and finite), then finite axiomatizability with equality implies finite axiomatizability without equality.

Since $L$ is finite, let $\phi_1(x,\bar{z})$, ..., $\phi_n(x,\bar{z})$ be all atomic formulas (with the exception of equality formulas) in the variables $x$, $\bar{z}=(z_1,...,z_k)$, in which $k+1$ is the greatest relational arity in $L$.

Consider the formula $I(x,y)$ saying that $x$ and $y$ satisfy the same atomic relations:

$\forall\bar{z}((\phi_1(x,\bar{z})\leftrightarrow\phi_1(y,\bar{z}))\wedge...\wedge(\phi_n(x,\bar{z})\leftrightarrow\phi_n(y,\bar{z})))$.

[edit: In the compact notation sugested in the comments,

$I(x,y)$ is $\forall\bar{z}\bigwedge_{i=1}^{n}(\phi_i(x,\bar{z})\leftrightarrow\phi_i(y,\bar{z}))$.]

Now, let $A$ be an axiom for $Th_{FOL}(C)$. We may assume that $\bar{z}$ does not occur in $A$. Suppose that $\psi$ is an equality-free sentence such that $\psi\in Th_{FOL}(C)$. Therefore,

$A\vdash\psi$.

If $A_I$ is obtained from $A$ by replacing all occurrences of the form $u=v$ by $I(u,v)$, then

$A_I, \forall x,y(x=y\leftrightarrow I(x,y))\vdash\psi$, by a standard result on equivalence.

Since the equality axioms are consequences of $\forall x,y(x=y\leftrightarrow I(x,y))$, we have that

$A_I, \forall x,y(x=y\leftrightarrow I(x,y))\vdash\psi$ in first-order logic without equality also. Hence,

$A_I\vdash\psi$ in first-order logic without equality by the standard conservativity result on definitional extensions.

Since $A$ implies $A_I$, we conclude that $A_I$ is an axiom for $Th_{FOL_{w/o=}}(C)$.

$\endgroup$
11
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ I think this can be stated more briefly as: "We can convert a finite axiomatization with equality into a finite axiomatization without equality by replacing $x=y$ in every axiom with $I(x,y)$; any deduction from those axioms will remain valid after making the same replacement throughout." Secondarily, I would reformat the key definition as $$I(x,y) := \forall \bar{z} \bigwedge_{i=1}^n (\phi_i(x,\bar{z}) \leftrightarrow \phi_i (y,\bar{z}))$$(using the command \bigwedge) $\endgroup$
    – user44143
    Commented May 12, 2022 at 17:46
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @RodrigoFreire Identically to "$\sum_{i=1}^n$." Note that, like the summation symbol, the appearance will differ based on the type of line it occurs in: compare $\bigwedge_{i=1}^n$ and $$\bigwedge_{i=1}^n.$$ $\endgroup$ Commented May 12, 2022 at 18:29
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ This argument for relational theories was my first thought back in April, but it is wrong, as $A$ does not imply $A_I$ in general. For example, let $A$ be $\exists x,y\,(I(x,y)\land x\ne y)$. Then $A$ is easily seen to axiomatize a consistent FO theory with equality, but $A_I=\exists x,y\,(I(x,y)\land\neg I(x,y))$ is inconsistent, hence it does not axiomatize the equality-free consequences of $A$, and it is not implied by $A$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 13, 2022 at 6:14
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Yes, in that case it holds. It also holds if $A$ implies that $x=y$ is equivalent to an $=$-free formula (though in that case it’s easy to prove the result directly, even for nonrelational languages). I wonder if there is a useful more general sufficient condition that would subsume these two cases. $\endgroup$ Commented May 13, 2022 at 9:42
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Anyway, the relational case of the original problem remains an intriguing question, even though your counterexample answers the question as posed by the OP. $\endgroup$ Commented May 13, 2022 at 9:47

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .