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We can define a shift-invariant space as $$V_{\varphi}(\mathbb{Z}):=\left\{\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}}c_k\varphi({\cdot}-k):(c_k)\in \ell_2\right\},$$ where convergence of the series is taken to be in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$. Is this a closed subspace of $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ or for what conditions on $\varphi$, this is a closed subspace of $L^2(\mathbb{R})$?

On the other hand, let $$W_\varphi(\mathbb{Z}):=\overline{\operatorname{span}}^{L^2(\mathbb{R})}\left\{\varphi(\cdot-k):k\in\mathbb{Z}\right\}.$$ What relation we have in between the spaces $ W_{\varphi}(\mathbb{Z})$ and $V_{\varphi}(\mathbb{Z})$? (i.e. are these definitions equivalent?)

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    $\begingroup$ The sum converges in $L^2({\mathbb R})$ iff the sequence $(c_k)$ is in $\ell^1$, not $\ell^2$. Here ''convergence in $L^2$'' is interpreted as absolute convergence. $\endgroup$
    – user473423
    Commented Mar 31, 2022 at 6:14
  • $\begingroup$ How are you defining 𝜑 ? Or should we just guess what you mean by it? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 15:00

1 Answer 1

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Clearly $f\in V_\phi$ iff $\hat{f}(\gamma) = p(\gamma)\hat{\phi}(\gamma)$ for some $1$-periodic $p\in L^2(\mathbb{T})$, where $\hat{\phi}$ denotes the Fourier transform of $\phi$. Let $$\Phi(\gamma) = \sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}}|\hat{\phi}(\gamma-k)|^2 .$$ $\Phi\in L^1(\mathbb{T})$ since $\phi\in L^2(\mathbb{R})$.

Lemma: a. If $V_{\phi}$ is well-defined, then $\Phi\in L^{\infty}(\mathbb{T})$.

$\hspace{3mm}$ b. $V_\phi$ is isometrically isomorphic to $\{p\in L^2(\mathbb{T}): |p|^2\Phi\in L^1(\mathbb{T})\}$, a subspace of the weighted $L^2$-space $L^2_\Phi(\mathbb{T})$.

Proof. By Plancherel theorem, for all $f\in V_\phi$ \begin{eqnarray} \|f\|_2^2 = \|\hat{f}\|_2^2 = \sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}}\int_k^{k+1} |p(\gamma)\hat{\phi}(\gamma)|^2\ d\gamma = \int_0^1 |p(\gamma)|^2\Phi(\gamma)\ d\gamma \end{eqnarray} If $\Phi\notin L^{\infty}(\mathbb{T})$ then there exists $p\in L^2(\mathbb{T})$ such that the integral on the RHS above diverges. Let $(c_n)$ be the Fourier coefficients of $p$. The series $\sum c_n\phi(\cdot - n)$ doesn't converge.

Proposition: Let $U:\overline{V_\phi}\to L^2_\Phi(\mathbb{T})$ be the isometry in the previous Lemma. The following are equivalent.

i. $V_{\phi}$ is closed in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$.

ii. $U(V_\phi) = \{p\in L^2(\mathbb{T}): |p|^2\Phi\in L^1(\mathbb{T})\}$ is closed in $L^2_\Phi(\mathbb{T})$.

iii. There exists $Z\subseteq\mathbb{T}$ and $A,B>0$ such that $\Phi(Z)=\{0\}$ and $$A\leq \Phi(\gamma)\leq B \hspace{8mm} \forall\gamma\in\mathbb{T}\backslash Z \hspace{3mm}\textrm{a.e.}$$

Proof. $(i\Leftrightarrow ii)$ clear. $\hspace{4mm}(iii\Rightarrow ii)$ $U(V_\phi)$ is isomorphic to $L^2(\mathbb{T}\backslash Z)$ so closed.

$(ii\Rightarrow iii)$ Let $\displaystyle A_n = \{\gamma\in \mathbb{T}\backslash Z : \frac{1}{2^{n+1}}\leq\Phi(\gamma)\leq\frac{1}{2^n} \}$. Suppose $(iii)$ is false. Then, there exists a subsequence $(A_{n_k})$ with $m(A_{n_k})>0$. Let $$q_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \sqrt{\frac{k}{m(A_{n_k})}} \mathbf{1}_{A_k}$$ then $(q_n)$ is Cauchy in $U(V_{\phi})$, and converges in $L^2_\Phi(\mathbb{T})$ to a $q\notin U(V_{\phi})$.


For the second question, clearly $V_\phi\subseteq W_\phi\subseteq \overline{V_\phi}$, so $W_\phi = \overline{V_\phi}$. Thus, $W_\phi=V_\phi$ iff $\Phi$ satisfies the condition in the Proposition above.

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    $\begingroup$ Why do you claim that $V_\phi$ is the union of the $V_n$'s ? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 31, 2022 at 7:22
  • $\begingroup$ I think $V_\phi = \cup_{n \in \mathbb{N} }V_{n} $ since $V_n \subset V_{n+1}$ for each $n$. What about the other space $W_{\phi}$? $\endgroup$
    – AKG
    Commented Mar 31, 2022 at 9:23
  • $\begingroup$ But the assumption you made on $\Phi$ may not hold in general for arbitrary $\phi \in L^2(\mathbb{R}).$ @Onur $\endgroup$
    – AKG
    Commented Apr 1, 2022 at 6:25

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