I am now studying Bayesian inverse problems. In the note of Dashti and Stuart https://arxiv.org/abs/1302.6989, they mentioned that "... when considering a non-separable Banach space $B$, it is not clear what the ''natural" $\sigma$-algebra on $B$ is ...", where the usual Borel $\sigma$-algebra and the cylindrical $\sigma$-algebra are considered.
My questions are:
- What is the intuition behind the cylindrical $\sigma$-algebra? (More precisely, why do we need this $\sigma$-algebra?)
- Why do we need them to coincide (as in the case $B$ is a separable Banach space)? Is it a problem if we just consider the usual $\sigma$-algebra on a Banach space $B$ to study Bayesian inverse problems?
Thank you very much.