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I am attempting to understand a paper. They have $u$ is a stable smooth solution of $ -\Delta u = f(u)$ in $ \Omega$ with $ u=0$ on $ \partial \Omega$ where $\Omega$ is a bounded domain in Euclidean space. By stable they mean the first eigenvalue of the linearized operator is strictly positive; ie. there is some $ \mu>0$ and $ \phi>0$ which solves $$-\Delta \phi - f'(u) \phi=\mu \phi \; \; \mbox{ in } \; \; \Omega$$ with $ \phi=0$ on $ \partial \Omega$. They then go on to say that $ \sup_\Omega | \nabla u| = \sup_{\partial \Omega} | \nabla u|$ by the maximum principle since $ \mu$ is positive and since $ u_{x_i}$ solves $-\Delta (u_{x_i}) - f'(u) u_{x_i}=0$ in $ \Omega$.

The part I don't understand is this final claim about the maximum of the gradient being obtained on the boundary. I assume this must come directly off the standard maximum principle but I don't see it.

For instance I assume they are saying if $ C(x)>0$ is some smooth function and there is some $ \phi>0$ in $ \Omega$ and $ \mu>0$ which satisfies $ -\Delta \phi - C(x) \phi = \mu \phi$ in $ \Omega$ with $ \phi=0$ on $ \partial \Omega$ and $ -\Delta \psi - C(x) \psi=0$ in $ \Omega$ that we must have $ \sup_{\Omega} | \psi| = \sup_{\partial \Omega} | \psi| $; but I am convinced I can come up with trivial counter examples to this final statement. I assume clearly I must be missing something obvious or. Any comments would be helpful.

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  • $\begingroup$ $f$ is decreasing? $\endgroup$
    – username
    Commented Dec 17, 2021 at 7:03
  • $\begingroup$ @username: If $f$ were decreasing, $u$ would automatically be stable, so I suppose it is not. :-) $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 17, 2021 at 7:06
  • $\begingroup$ so in general f is increasing... its really coming from a Gelfand problem like $ -\Delta u = \lambda f(u)$ and the minimal solution is stable. Typical $f$ are $ f( u ) = e^u$ and $ f(u) = (u+1)^p$ for $p>1$. In all reality I don't overly care about this particular problem. Its this maximum principle idea that I would like to understand to be able to apply it in some other places. $\endgroup$
    – Math604
    Commented Dec 17, 2021 at 7:19
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    $\begingroup$ If $f$ is increasing, i.e. if $f'(u) \geqslant 0$, then the maximum principle fails for the linearised equation $-\Delta \phi - f'(u) \phi = 0$: if we set $\phi = 1$ on the boundary, then $\phi > 1$ in the interior, unless $f'(u) = 0$ a.e. in $\Omega$. Of course, this does not necessarily mean that the maximum principle fails for the particular choice of $\phi$ such as $\phi = u_{x_i}$. Can you give us a reference to the paper where you found this argument? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 17, 2021 at 11:40
  • $\begingroup$ thanks for the comment. It would take me a while to find the paper (I actually was looking at the paper a long time ago and didn't understand it then...but only recently thought I wanted to learn it since I might want to apply it). Ya I agree that it seems problematic for general $\phi$ but maybe for that particular one it works. If I can find the reference I will post it. $\endgroup$
    – Math604
    Commented Dec 17, 2021 at 12:03

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I don't know if that's helpful, but here is a comment (not an answer). While it is possibly not true that $u_i$ has an extremum on $\partial\Omega$, it is true that $$ v_i:=\frac{u_i}{\phi} $$ does. Note the algebraic identity $$ b\Delta \left(ab\right)=\textrm{div}\left(b^2Da\right)+ab\Delta b, $$ and apply it to $a=v_i$ and $b=\phi$ to obtain \begin{eqnarray*} 0&=&-\phi \Delta u_i - f^\prime(u_i)\phi u_i \\ &=& -\textrm{div}\left(\phi^2Dv_i\right)+v_i\phi\left( -\Delta \phi - f^\prime(u_i)\phi \right) \\ &=&-\textrm{div}\left(\phi^2Dv_i\right) +\mu\phi^2 v_i, \end{eqnarray*} and now the right hand-side is an operator with positive coefficients. Normally this is used with a Neumann or Periodic eigensolution, which does not vanish on the boundary, and therefore it gives meaningful bounds for the gradients. Here since $\phi$ vanishes, what it says is less clear.

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  • $\begingroup$ thanks for the answer. I think i managed to do something similar. I had worked with the $C(x)$ term and then worked an a slightly bigger domain with $ \phi$ the first eigenfunction on the larger domain (whose first eigenfunction is slightly smaller than $ \mu$). This gives me something; but for applications i would need the original claimed statement. So just to be clear; do you agree that it appears the result is false? For the case of general $C(x)$ i think I can easily come up with counterexamples (but maybe for the nonlinear problem i can't) $\endgroup$
    – Math604
    Commented Dec 17, 2021 at 9:37

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