Let $(\mathcal{C}, \otimes , I)$ and $(\mathcal{C}, \otimes', I')$ be tensor categories. A tensor functor $F: (\mathcal{C}, \otimes , I)\to (\mathcal{C}', \otimes' , I')$ consists of a functor $F: \mathcal{C}\to \mathcal{C'}$ together with natural isomorphisms $J_{X,Y}: F(X)\otimes' F(Y) \to F(X\otimes Y)$ and an isomorphism $\varphi: F(I)\to I'$ such that three compatibility diagrams with respect to the associators commute.
Next, consider the following two definitions:
(1) A tensor functor $F$ is called an equivalence of tensor categories if it is an equivalence of ordinary categories.
(2) A tensor functor $F: (\mathcal{C}, \otimes , I)\to (\mathcal{C}', \otimes' , I')$ is called an equivalence of tensor categories if there exists a tensor functor $F': (\mathcal{C}', \otimes' , I')\to (\mathcal{C}, \otimes , I)$ together with natural tensor isomorphisms $\eta: \operatorname{id}_{\mathcal{C'}}\to FF'$ and $\theta: F'F\to \operatorname{id}_{\mathcal{C}}$.
Definition (1) is the definition in Etingof's book "Tensor categories" and definition (2) is in Kassel's book "Quantum groups". Clearly definition (2) implies definition (1). Is the converse true?