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Whatever complex oriented multiplicative cohomology theories are, they come with two basic properties (among many others):

i) a complex oriented multiplicative cohomology theory is a contravariant functor form (nice) topological spaces to (graded) rings;

ii) there is an initial object $MU^\bullet$.

Properties i) and ii) alone imply that for a (nice) topological space $X$ we have two distinguished morphisms of rings, $$ E^\bullet(pt)\to E^\bullet(X) $$ induced by the terminal morphism $X\to pt$, and $$ MU^\bullet(X)\to E^\bullet(X) $$ induced by the fact $MU^\bullet$ is initial. By naturality we have the commutative diagram of rings $\require{AMScd}$ \begin{CD} MU^\bullet(pt) @>>> MU^\bullet(X)\\ @V V V @VV V\\ E^\bullet(pt) @>>> E^\bullet(X) \end{CD}

Then, by the universal property of the tensor product of rings, we have a distinguished morphism of rings $$ MU^\bullet(X)\otimes_{MU^\bullet(pt)}E^\bullet(pt)\to E^\bullet(X). $$ What I'm unable to understand is whether this is always an isomorphism or, if it is not, which are examples where it is not an isomorphism.

Clearly, if $E^\bullet$ is Landweber exact, the above comparison map is easily seen to be an isomorphism. Yet, as far I understand it, Landweber exactness is more concerned with determining whether $MU^\bullet(X)\otimes_{MU^\bullet(pt)}R$ defines a muliplicative cohomology theory given a ring morphism $MU^\bullet(pt)\to R$ than into investigating what happens when one a priori knows $R$ is $E^\bullet(pt)$ and the morphism $MU^\bullet(pt)\to E^\bullet(pt)$ the universal one. Moreover, Landweber exact functor theorem gives a sufficient condition for $MU^\bullet(pt)\to R$ to induce a multiplicative complex oriented cohomology theory and not a necessary one.

In other words, my question is: the comparison morphism $$ MU^\bullet(X)\otimes_{MU^\bullet(pt)}E^\bullet(pt)\to E^\bullet(X). $$ is always defined, and there are "nice" cohomology theories, for which this is an isomorphism. Nice cohomology theories include Landweber exact theories. But what are nice theories? Are they all? If not, what is an example of a not nice theory?

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    $\begingroup$ One example of a complex oriented cohomology theory that is not Landweber exact is $H\mathbb{Z}$. $\endgroup$
    – Drew Heard
    May 13, 2021 at 16:57
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    $\begingroup$ There are also connective k-theories $k(n)$, $P(n)$, $B(n)$ etc, i.e., if you pick up a complex oriented cohomology theory randomly, it is not a nice theory. $\endgroup$
    – user43326
    May 13, 2021 at 19:15
  • $\begingroup$ @DrewHeard: but this is $the$ example! Thanks a lot! that's precisely what I was looking for. Now that you made me aware of this I even found this example mentioned on the wikipedia page on Landweber exactness theorem. I am actually quite surprised this example appears not to be so prominently mentioned in treatments of multiplicative cohomology theories and formal group laws. I see from this MO answer mathoverflow.net/questions/346470/… it is not so immediate to show this is an example [continues] $\endgroup$ May 14, 2021 at 9:44
  • $\begingroup$ [continues] but still I would mention $H\mathbb{Z}$ immediately when discussing Landweber theorem. Actually, to me it would make good sense to revert the historic development and directly define complex orientations as multiplicative morphism out of $MU^\bullet$; this would immediately lead to a definition of Landweber exact cohomology theories in terms of the comparison map, with no need of mentioning formal group laws, and then when one introduces the formal group law associated with $E^\bullet$ one could give Landweber theorem as a characterization of the image of Landweber exact theories. $\endgroup$ May 14, 2021 at 9:51

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Firstly, even in the Landweber exact case your comparison map need not be an isomorphism unless $X$ is a finite complex. It is more often the case that $E^*(X)$ agrees with the completed tensor product $MU^*(X)\widehat{\otimes}_{MU^*}E^*$. However, I am still not sure whether that works for all $X$; exactness properties of completed tensor products are quite delicate.

On the other hand, the Landweber exactness criterion is actually equivalent to $MU^*(-)\otimes_{MU^*}R^*$ being a cohomology theory on finite complexes. One direction is Landweber's theorem, the other follows easily from the existence of generalized Moore spectra $S/(v_0^{i_0},\dotsc,v_n^{i_n})$ (which is a highly nontrivial theorem, of course).

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  • $\begingroup$ Dear Neil, thanks for the informative answer. So, if I understand it correctly, limiting ourselves to finite compelxes Landweber exactness criterion is an if an only if (and so in particular the comparison map is an isomorphism for finite complexes if and only if $E^\bullet$ is Landweber exact). Thanks a lot! surprisingly in my experience only one direction of Landweber exactness criterion is emphasized, so I was missing/wondering about the converse. $\endgroup$ May 13, 2021 at 14:18
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    $\begingroup$ @domenicofiorenza It might also be helpful to mention that the theorem works without finiteness hypotheses for homology theories. In general working with homology theories is much more comfortable than with cohomology theories. $\endgroup$ May 13, 2021 at 14:55
  • $\begingroup$ @denisnardin: thanks. Sure, but that would have implied mentioning both homology and cohomology and the fact that homology is a module over cohomology, making the question more involved in the end; for (multiplicative complex oriented) cohomology theories the comparison map comes out of "nothing" (i.e., just i) and ii) ), and that is why I was surprised I couldn't locate a really clear statement concerning the comparison map in relation to Landweber exactness criterion; an if and only if statement, I mean. $\endgroup$ May 13, 2021 at 15:20

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