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Motivated by this question, it seems natural to ask the following:

Question 1: Is there a [finitely generated discrete] torsion-free virtually Abelian (but not Abelian) group $G$ so that the multiplicative monoid $R \setminus \{0\}$ of $R = \mathbb{F}_2[G]$ its group ring over $\mathbb{F}_2$ is [right-]amenable?

Note that for virtually Abelian groups the zero-divisor conjecture holds, so it makes sense to speak of the multiplicative monoid of $R$. Amenable here means the existence of an invariant mean i.e. an element $\mu$ in the dual of $\ell^\infty(M)$ so that $\mu$ is invariant under the translation action of the monoid; I don't actually care if it's right or left amenable, but it only needs to be one of both. If the group is Abelian, then the monoid is also Abelian hence amenable.

Question 2: Is there a [finitely generated discrete] torsion-free non-Abelian amenable group $G$ so that: (1) the zero-divisor conjecture holds for $R = K[G]$ (the group ring over some finite field $K$) and (2) the multiplicative monoid of $R \setminus \{0\}$ is [right-]amenable?

Lastly one could also replace the base ring $K$ by $\mathbb{Z}$. I stumbled on this question while trying to give a tentative [positive] answer over there, but this tentative answer is false and it seems the questions above should have been settled long ago. Or maybe the answer to this question (for some group) has an implication to an open problem? In any case, it would be nice to have the status of this (probably?) well-studied question.

This thesis gives a good overview of amenability for semigroups (and hence monoids). Note that if the group $G$ is Abelian, then the multiplicative monoid of $K[G]$ is also Abelian and hence amenable (result which goes back to Day or Markov/Kakutani).

PS: I'm hitting lots of pay-walls when going through references, so apologies for not being able to complete the history check.

First EDIT: removed the zero from the monoid (otherwise the measure supported at 0 is a mean); added torsion-free hypothesis to avoid zero-divisors in Question 1; added that the zero-divisors should hold in Question 2 for the same reason.

Second EDIT: in view of recent developments, I changed the formulation of the question to make them still pertinent.

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  • $\begingroup$ There seems to also be a notion of amenability of algebras (which makes the title a bit confusing). $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Mar 15, 2021 at 11:01
  • $\begingroup$ My vague memory is that any monoid with a multiplicative zero is amenable so the multiplicative monoid of a ring is always amenable $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 15, 2021 at 13:19
  • $\begingroup$ @BenjaminSteinberg yes obviously... the measure is then concentrated at the 0-element. I forgot to mention that its the amenability of the multiplicative monoid of $K[G]$ without its 0 element... Should I edit the post? $\endgroup$
    – ARG
    Commented Mar 15, 2021 at 13:30
  • $\begingroup$ @Ycor sure but the amenability of $K$-algebras (as in Bartholdi) is something else than the amenability of the multiplicative monoid (without its 0-element). $\endgroup$
    – ARG
    Commented Mar 15, 2021 at 13:31
  • $\begingroup$ What does it mean for a monoid to be amenable without its zero element? I'ts not a monoid any more? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 15, 2021 at 13:33

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