we we're asked about it, and I know that answer is "NO", and I haven't found an good enough answer yet and would appreciate an explanation with examples.
2
-
1$\begingroup$ Duplicate of : mathoverflow.net/questions/3525/… $\endgroup$– kjetil b halvorsenCommented Mar 14, 2021 at 17:16
-
1$\begingroup$ Does this answer your question? When are probability distributions completely determined by their moments? $\endgroup$– Will SawinCommented Mar 15, 2021 at 1:54
Add a comment
|
1 Answer
$\begingroup$
$\endgroup$
An example, and a necessary and sufficient condition (in the case when the distribution is absolutely continuous) for the uniqueness, can be found e.g. here.
answered Mar 14, 2021 at 14:32