$\DeclareMathOperator{\loc}{\mathrm{loc}}$This is from Lemarié-Rieusset's book "The Navier-Stokes problem in the 21st century", from the proof of a result about stationary solutions to Navier-Stokes (Theorem 16.2). There's a step where he uses the uniform boundedness theorem in a way that I can't comprehend. I will outline the relevant part of the proof and also add some steps that he doesn't explicitly give.
We're considering functions parameterized by $R>0$, $u_R:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}^3$ such that $\|u_R\|_{\dot{H^1}}$ is bounded uniformly in $R$. Thus, for every $$\phi\in \mathcal{D}=\{\text{smooth, compactly supported functions in }\mathbb{R}^3\},$$ we have $$\sup_{R}\|\phi u_R\|_{H^1}<\infty.$$ For any choice of test function $\phi$, by Rellich Kondrachov, we can extract a subsequence $R_k\to \infty$ such that $\phi u_{R_k}$ converges in $L^p$ for $p\in[1,6)$. Taking as test functions a sequence of functions $\phi_N\in \mathcal D$ that approximate the constant function $1$ in the limit $N\to\infty$, we obtain, via a diagonlization argument, a subsequence of $R_k$, which we continue to call $R_k$, such that $u_{R_k}$ converges to some function $u$ in $L^p_{\loc}$. (That is, we have a $3\epsilon$ argument: we have that $\phi_Nu_{R_k}$ converges as $R_k\to \infty$ to some function $u_N$ in $L^p_{\loc}$, then we show that $u_N$ form a Cauchy sequence in $L^p_{\loc}$. On the other hand, $u_{R_k}$ can be approximated by $\phi_N u_{R_k}$.).
Then, it is claimed that "by Banach-Steinhaus" (i.e. uniformed bounded principle), we have $u\in \dot {H^1}$.
I simply don't see in what way Banach-Steinhaus was used to reach such a conclusion. The way I see it, we started with a sequence $u_R$ which we know a priori to be bounded in $\dot H^1$, uniformly in $R$. From this, a subsequence $u_{R_k}$ has been extracted such that $u_{R_k}\to u$. The latter convergence, as far as I can see is only in $L^p_{\loc}$ for $p<6$. Of course, if this convergence were to hold in $\dot{H^1}$, then by definition, $u\in\dot{H^1}$, and no appeal to Banach-Steinhaus is needed. So I'm assuming that indeed we only have convergence in the aforementioned local $L^p$ spaces. But by some separate reasoning involving Banach Steinhaus, we are somehow able to conclude that $u$ nonetheless is in $\dot{H^1}$... how is this done??