Let $X,Y$ be Banach spaces with $X \subset Y$. Recall that $u \in L^1(0,T;X)$ has weak derivative $g \in L^1(0,T;Y)$ if $$\int_0^T u(t)\phi'(t) = -\int_0^T g(t)\phi(t) \qquad\forall \phi \in C_c^\infty(0,T).$$
Suppose that $u$ also has a weak derivative $h \in L^1(0,T;Z)$ where $Y \subset Z$.
In Boyer and Fabrie's book on Navier-Stokes, page 95, he states that if $Y \subset Z$ is dense and $Z'$ is separable, then $g=h$. My question, why is the density and separability needed? Isn't the argument this simple:
Since $g$ and $h$ are weak derivatives of $u$, we have $$\int_0^T (g(t)-h(t))\phi(t) = 0\qquad\forall \phi \in C_c^\infty(0,T)$$ and by the fundamental lemma of the calculus of variations, it follows that $g(t) = h(t)$ in $Z$ for almost every $t$.
Isn't this enough? What do I miss? Does anyone know another source for this uniqueness claim where the derivatives lie in different spaces?