4
$\begingroup$

I was told that if $A$ is the subring of $\mathbb{C}[x_1,\ldots, x_n]$ generated by the polynomials $p_1(x_1,\ldots, x_n),\ldots, p_1(x_1,\ldots, x_n)$, then the preimage $p^{-1}(c)$ via the map $p = (p_1,\ldots, p_n):\mathbb{C}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{C}^n$ is finite for all $c\in \mathbb{C}^n$ if the ring $\mathbb{C}[x_1,\ldots, x_n]$ is integral and flat over the subring $A$. Does anyone know where I can find a reference (preferably a textbook) that has this or an equivalent statement?

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Is this not essentially Noether normalization? $\endgroup$ Jul 15, 2020 at 13:05

1 Answer 1

8
$\begingroup$

$\def\CC{\mathbb{C}}$User "anon" points out to me that this is Proposition 8.28 in Milne's notes; see also Example 8.36 for a quasi-finite map $\CC^2 \to \CC^2$ which is not finite. The rest of my answer is probably not as useful now that there is a good reference, but I'll leave it.

Here is the right statement:

Theorem Let $X$ and $Y$ be affine varieties over an algebraically closed field $k$, with corresponding coordinate rings $A$ and $B$. Let $\pi : Y \to X$ be a map and let $\pi^{\ast} : A \to B$ be the corresponding map of rings. If $B$ is a finitely generated as an $A$-module, then $\pi^{-1}(x)$ is finite for all $x \in X$.

In your case, $X = Y = \CC^n$ and $A=B = \CC[x_1, \ldots, x_n]$. You phrase your hypothesis as $B$ is integral over $\pi^{\ast} A$ but, since $B$ is a finitely generated $\CC$-algebra, that is the same as asking that $B$ is finitely generated as an $A$-module. Also, the adjective "flat" isn't needed, and actually follows from finiteness in your case by the Miracle Flatness Theorem.

Proof Let $x \in X$ and let $\mathfrak{m}_x$ be the corresponding maximal ideal of $A$. Then $\pi^{-1}(x)$ corresponds to the radical ideal $\sqrt{B \pi(\mathfrak{m}_x)}$ so we want to show that $B/\sqrt{B \pi(\mathfrak{m}_x)}$ is a finite dimensional $k$-algebra. It is enough to show that $\dim_k B/B\pi(\mathfrak{m}_x)$ is finite, since $B/\sqrt{B \pi(\mathfrak{m}_x)}$ is a quotient of $B/B\pi(\mathfrak{m}_x)$. But $B/B\pi(\mathfrak{m}_x) \cong B \otimes_A A/\mathfrak{m}_x$. Since $B$ is a finite $A$-module, $B \otimes_A A/\mathfrak{m}_x$ must be a finite $A/\mathfrak{m}_x$ module, and $A/\mathfrak{m}_x$ is just $k$. $\square$.

Here is where this can be found in some other books: Shaverevich introduces finite maps in Section I.5.3, but doesn't show that they have finite fibers until Section II.6.3 (Theorem 3) and then only under the hypothesis that $X$ is normal. Milne introduces the words "finite" (meaning $B$ is finitely generated as an $A$-module) and "quasi-finite" (meaning the fibers of $\pi$ are finite) in Definition 2.39, and proves the result we want as Proposition 8.28; as noted above. In Hartshorne, this is Exercise 3.5.(a) in Section II.3. Vakil makes this Important Exercise 7.3.K. When I taught Algebraic Geometry, I got to this one month in, see the notes for October 8.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Well, there is EGA II.6.1.7, but this is probably not at the level you want to stay... $\endgroup$
    – abx
    Jul 15, 2020 at 16:55
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ Milne's notes 8.28? $\endgroup$
    – anon
    Jul 16, 2020 at 4:05
  • $\begingroup$ @anon Thanks! That's probably the best choice. I should have known to look harder when it appeared that Milne omitted a basic fact. Also nice to note that Milne's Example 8.36 gives a quasi-finite map $\mathbb{C}^2 \to \mathbb{C}^2$ which is not finite. $\endgroup$ Jul 16, 2020 at 8:28
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the references. Your notes give me the exact statement I was looking for. $\endgroup$ Jul 17, 2020 at 2:10

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.