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Nearly every mathematician nowadays is familiar with the fact that there is up to isomorphism only one complete ordered field, the real numbers.

Theorem. Any two complete ordered fields are isomorphic.

Proof. $\newcommand\Q{\mathbb{Q}}\newcommand\R{\mathbb{R}}$Let us observe first that every complete ordered field $R$ is Archimedean, which means that there is no number in $R$ that is larger than every finite sum $1+1+\cdots+1$. If there were such a number, then by completeness, there would have to be a least such upper bound $b$ to these sums; but $b-1$ would also be an upper bound, which is a contradiction. So every complete ordered field is Archimedean.

Suppose now that we have two complete ordered fields, $\R_0$ and $\R_1$. We form their respective prime subfields, that is, their copies of the rational numbers $\Q_0$ and $\Q_1$, by computing inside them all the finite quotients $\pm(1+1+\cdots+1)/(1+\cdots+1)$. This fractional representation itself provides an isomorphism of $\Q_0$ with $\Q_1$, indicated below with blue dots and arrows:

categoricity of reals as complete ordered field

Next, by the Archimedean property, every number $x\in\R_0$ is determined by the cut it makes in $\Q_0$, indicated in yellow, and since $\R_1$ is complete, there is a counterpart $\bar x\in\R_1$ filling the corresponding cut in $\Q_1$, indicated in violet. Thus, we have defined a map $\pi:x\mapsto\bar x$ from $\R_0$ to $\R_1$. This map is surjective, since every $y\in\R_1$ determines a cut in $\Q_1$, and by the completeness of $\R_0$, there is an $x\in\R_0$ filling the corresponding cut. Finally, the map $\pi$ is a field isomorphism since it is the continuous extension to $\R_0$ of the isomorphism of $\Q_0$ with $\Q_1$. $\Box$

My expectation is that this theorem is familiar to almost every contemporary mathematician, and I furthermore find this theorem central to contemporary mathematical views on the philosophy of structuralism in mathematics. The view is that we are entitled to refer to the real numbers because we have a categorical characterization of them in the theorem. We needn't point to some canonical structure, like a canonical meter-bar held in some special case deep in Paris, but rather, we can describe the features that make the real numbers what they are: they are a complete ordered field.

Question. Who first proved or even stated this theorem?

It seems that Hilbert would be a natural candidate, and I would welcome evidence in favor of that. It seems however that Hilbert provided axioms for the real field that it was an Archimedean complete ordered field, which is strangely redundant, and it isn't clear to me whether he actually had the categoricity result.

Did Dedekind know it? Or someone else? Please provide evidence; it would be very welcome.

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    $\begingroup$ This is a great question, but, like all questions about history of science and mathematics, it seems like it should go on HSM. (The standard response is that that site is less active, and at least part of that is because there's so much HSM activity here!) $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jun 13, 2020 at 21:21
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice The standard response is really that the quality of HSM is awful and many experts and interested scholars avoid it as a result. Sending a question there is usually a disservice. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 13, 2020 at 21:46
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    $\begingroup$ @AndrésE.Caicedo, right, but it's circular: HSM will never get any better if the most qualified people keep avoiding it, so those who are interested in HSM should ask and answer questions there, not re-purpose MO for it. We are very strict with new users that MO is only for research-level questions in mathematics; we should be equally strict amongst ourselves. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jun 13, 2020 at 22:38
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice I think your understanding of what this site is is perhaps too narrow. I feel the question belongs here. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 14, 2020 at 4:11
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice One can turn your argument around: it is precisely the excessive efforts to limit interesting questions on MO that has led in recent years to a reduced level of quality and engagement with MO. Have you observed this? To the extent that you are successful in transferring mathematically interesting questions to another site, I would argue that you are working towards the decline of MO. Let's have the interesting questions here! My MO policy has always been: questions are welcome on MO if they are of interest to research-level mathematicians. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 14, 2020 at 18:20

4 Answers 4

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Joel, I believe this was first explicitly stated and proved by E.V. Huntington in his classic paper: Complete sets of postulates for the theory of real quantities, Trans. Am. Math. Soc. vol. 4, No. 3 (1903), pp. 358-370. See Theorem II', p. 368.

Edit (June 14, 2020): It is perhaps worth adding that in 1904, the year following the publication of Huntington's paper, O. Veblen published his paper A System of Axioms for Geometry, Trans. Am. Math. Soc. vol. 5, no. 3, pp. 343-384, in which he introduced the idea of a categorical system of axioms. He illustrated his conception with Huntington's above mentioned characterization of the reals (pp. 347-348). No doubt, this is mentioned in the paper referred to below by Ali Enayat.

EDIT (8/27/23)

In light of the doubts raised by Zvonimir Sikic regarding Huntington being the originator of the idea of a categorical system of axioms, it should be noted that while Huntington was well aware that there existed categorical axiom sets in the literature prior to his isolation of the concept, including those axiom sets mentioned by Sikic, he held the view that the earlier writers neither isolated the idea nor expressed any interest in it. He made this point explicitly as follows in 1913 when he provided a novel categorical characterization of Euclidean geometry.

More important than the question of independence is the proof of the sufficiency of the postulates to determine a unique type of system; or, to use a phrase of Veblen’s, the proof that the postulates form a categorical set. Little attention seems to have been paid to this question except by the present writer in connection with the foundations of analysis, and by Veblen in connection with the foundations of geometry; and yet there appears to be no other way of proving that all the propositions of a science are deducible from a given set of postulates, than by showing that the postulates form a ‘sufficient' or ‘categorical' set.” (pp. 524-525)

—Huntington, E. V. 1913. “A Set of Postulates for Abstract Geometry, Expressed in Terms of the Simple Relation of Inclusion.” Mathematische Annalen 73 (4):522–59. (pdf from archive.org)

For what it's worth, David Hilbert was the managing editor of Mathematische Annalen at the time of the publication of Huntington's paper.

Edit: 8/28/23

I should have mentioned in my previous edit, that contrary to Zvonimir Sikic contention, Huntington's paper of 1903 does indeed contain an axiomatization of the ordered field of real numbers as well as a proof of it categorical nature. In Section 2 he provides an axiomatization of the ordered field of real numbers (consisting of 14 axioms including the Dedekind Completeness axiom) and in Theorem II' on page 368 he proves that the axiomatization is categorical.

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    $\begingroup$ Huntington's work was based on previous work by Dedekind and Hilbert, but nevertheless, the following article corroborates Ehrlich's claim that E.V. Huntington can be credited to be the first to have formulated and proved the categoricity of the second order theory of the real field (in modern parlance). Completeness and Categoricity. Part I: Nineteenth-century Axiomatics to Twentieth-century Metalogic, by S. Awodey & E. H. Reck (a preprint can be found via andrew.cmu.edu/user/awodey/preprints/cc/ccI.pdf). It appeared in print in History and Philosophy of Logic, 23: 1–30 (2002). $\endgroup$
    – Ali Enayat
    Commented Jun 14, 2020 at 17:02
  • $\begingroup$ What about Hoelder's paper from 1901: 'Der Quantitat und die Lehre yom Mass', in Berichte uber die Verhandlungen der Koniglich Siichsuschen Gesellschaft der Wissenschaften zu Leipzig, Matematisch-Physische Classe, 1-64. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 17, 2020 at 11:59
  • $\begingroup$ It is proved there that Archemedean systems of magnitudes with no minimal magnitudes, are isomorphicaly and densely embeddable in R+ (if they have minima they are isomorphic to Z+). If a system of magnitudes is continuous, i.e. does not have empty Dedekind cuts, then it is isomorphic to R+. Systems of magnitudes is a linearly ordered semigroup with restricted difference. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 17, 2020 at 12:06
  • $\begingroup$ @philipehrlich Thanks a lot. I completely agree that neither Hilbert nor Holder are originators of the idea of a categorical system of axioms (I suppose it was Veblen). But was that the question? Let me give another example. Who is the originator of the categoricity of the axiomatization of N? I would say Dedekind, although he didn't have the idea of a categorical system of axioms and did not even axiomatize N. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 16:12
  • $\begingroup$ @Zvonimir Sikic. Yes, I suspect Dedekind would get credit with respect to N. See, however, my recent comment regarding your claim about Huntington in your answer to Joe's question. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 17:47
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The key question here is that Dedekind complete implies Archimedean, as in the first paragraph of Joel's Proof.

This was shown by Otto Stolz, in Zur Geometrie der Alten, insbesondere über ein Axiom des Archimedes, Mathematische Annalen, 22(4):504–519, 1883.

Apparently Stolz was persuaded to retract this paper.

I confess that I can't read German with any fluency and only got through the first part of the paper, but it does seem to me that that contains the correct argument that Joel states. Therefore Stolz deserves the credit.

The later part of the paper looks rather strange, but that's in part because I didn't follow the text.

However, Mikhail knows more about the history and will no doubt explain.

Footnote: I conjecture that a version of Conway's "surreal" numbers using computably enumerable subsets instead of general ones might be able to avoid Stolz's argument and yield a Dedekind complete but non-Archimedean field.

Some years ago, I put this conjecture to (the late) John Conway, he scratched his head and said "maybe".

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    $\begingroup$ This is very interesting, if it is true that Stolz has a clear statement of the categoricity result, since it is much earlier than Huntington. Can we have any German readers translate the relevant parts? To my way of thinking, however, the categoricity result goes strictly beyond merely observing that completeness implies Archimedean. That is key, of course, but categoricity is an important further idea of its own, of central importance and naturally in contemporary thought. It is precisely the question—when did this change occur? Huntington has essentially the contemporary view. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2023 at 19:45
  • $\begingroup$ Or are you claiming only that Stolz has the complete$\to$Archimedean result only? If so, then this seems insufficient for credit for the categoricity result. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2023 at 19:55
  • $\begingroup$ @JoelDavidHamkins: As a categorist, I'm not keen on the (model-theoretic) notion of "categoricity". After the complete/Archimedean question, I don't see the difficulty. (There are constructivity issues, on which my view is here, but you asked the question classically.) $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2023 at 20:18
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    $\begingroup$ Stolz is one of my favorite historical figures and I have extensively read and written about his work (e.g. researchgate.net/publication/…). The claim that he had a notion of categoricity strike me as far fetched. He also never wrote about ordered fields. He worked primarily on the positive cones of ordered abelian groups, and in 1891 succeeded in proving that the positive cone of a Dedekind complete ordered abelian group is Archimedean,... $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2023 at 21:11
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    $\begingroup$ @PaulTaylor To my way of thinking, the categoricity results of Dedekind and Huntington and so forth are the origin of the philosophy of structuralism in mathematics, because they enable us to refer to our familiar mathematical structures by identifying the features that characterize those structures up to isomorphism. I would think this is as important in category-theoretic foundations as in any other, whether set theory or type theory or what have you. So I was surprised to hear that you disparage the categoricity results (which are not theorems of model theory but mathematics generally). $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2023 at 21:54
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Hilbert's „Über den Zahlbegriff” published in 1900. is the first modern axiomatization of Archimedean fields. To axiomatize R, Hilbert added the maximality axiom (i.e. R is a maximal Archimedean field). He asserted that the existence of the model of the axioms is „nur einer geeigneten Modification bekkanter Schlussmethoden” i.e. „is just a suitable modification of known methods of reasoning”, and uniqueness trivially follows from maximality.

I guess that „bekkanter Schlussmethoden” were the following: If S is an ordered field it contains an isomorphic copy of Q, so let’s call it Q. Every point in S determines a cut in Q. If S is also Archimedean then every cut in Q determines none or one point in S. If S is also maximal then every cut in Q must determine one point in S. Namely, if it doesn’t it could be extended to an Archimedean field with this property, which is by Dedekind construction isomorphic to R. Hence, there is, up to isomorphism, exactly one maximal Archimedean ordered field which is isomorphic to R and every other is, up to isomorphism, contained in R.

This kind of argument has been well known since the time of Dedekind's „Stetigkeit und irrationale Zahlen", i.e. for more than 30 years. Everyone interested in the topic knew the argument, so Hilbert did not consider it necessary to repeat it. This is why I believe that Hilbert proved that maximality uniquely determines R just by stating that the proof is "a suitable modification of known methods of reasoning" (even though he didn't actually formulate the result in terms of isomorphism and didn't give the proof himself).

Hölder published a more general results in „Die Axiome der Quantität und die Lehre vom Mass” from 1901. He proved, in modern terms, that every continous system of magnitudes is isomorphic to R (it is a trivial corollary that every complete ordered field is isomorphic to R). A continous system of magnitudes was axiomatized with trichotomy, associativity, density, positivity (a < a + b), difference (if a < b then there is c such that a+c= b), and Dedekind's axiom (there is no gaps). In his terminology „there is a [real] measure-number for each given magnitude and there is a magnitude for each given [real] measure-number“ and the correspondence preserves the defining properties. It follows taht „if one has two systems of magnitudes, both fulfilling axioms I to VII, then the systems can be explicitly related to each other such that the sums [and order] of corresponding magnitudes also correspond“.

Huntington, in his „A complete set of postulates for the theory of absolute continuous magnitude“ from 1902, wrote: “The set of postulates adopted in the present paper is nearly the same as the second set of Hölder’s, with the exception that Dedekind's postulate of continuity is here replaced by Weierstrass's”. So, Huntington is not concerned with Archimedean fields but with Hölder's systems of magnitudes. He proved in „Complete Sets of Postulates for the Theory of Real Quantities“ from 1903. that „any two assemblages, M (<, +) and M ' (<, +), which satisfy the [Hölder's] postulates 1-10 are equivalent; that is, they can be brought into one-to-one correspondence in such a way that when a and b in M correspond to a' and b' in M', we shall have, a' < b' whenever a < b and a + b will correspond to a' + b' “.

So, Huntington proved the categoricity of (R, <, +) in Section 1 of his 1903 paper, as Hölder did in #15 of his 1901 paper. As Philip Ehrlich pointed out, Huntington also proved the categoricity of (R, <, +, x) in section 2 of his 1903 paper, which Hölder apparently did not. So it may seem that Huntington did something more after all. However, in #16 Hölder defined multiplication in (R,<,+) and proved in #17 that it is unique, so there was no need for special treatment of (R, <, +, x).

Hence, as far as categoricity is concerned, there is nothing in Huntington's work that we do not already find in Hölder's. Therefore, it is not surprising that Ebbinghaus et. al. in references to the chapter on real numbers and their axiomatization (in their book "Zahlen") do not mention Huntington, only Hilbert and Hölder.

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  • $\begingroup$ How does uniqueness follow trivially from maximality, unless one undertakes the Huntington argument? And does Hilbert claim uniqueness up to isomorphism? Does Hölder? To my way of thinking, realizing that this is an important phenomenon is a significant part of the accomplishment. Huntington does this very clearly. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23, 2023 at 17:05
  • $\begingroup$ In particular, saying that the axioms were already known earlier is not the same as saying that the categoricity result was known and proved earlier. Was the categoricity theorem even stated clearly by anyone before Huntington? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 23, 2023 at 17:42
  • $\begingroup$ Joel, I edited my answer to respond to your comments. I think that Hilbert was aware of the uniqueness of the Archimedean field that satisfies his axioms because he could certainly have considered the argument I offer as his “bekkanter Schlussmethoden” accessible to everyone. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 24, 2023 at 8:24
  • $\begingroup$ I don't think that Hilbert had a general concept of categoricity (he used the rather vague semantic/syntactic term complete) and it could be that Huntington's concept of sufficiency was a first step towards that. But the idea was well known in special cases (e.g. Dedekind's theorem that every two simply infinite systems are similar), so I think that in the special case of Archimedean fields the priority is Hilbert's. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 24, 2023 at 8:25
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    $\begingroup$ For injectivity, you have to know that distinct numbers in $\mathbb{R}_0$ don't determine the same cut in $\mathbb{Q}_0$, and this amounts to Archimedean. Once that is addressed, your argument is fundamentally the same as mine—you simply fold in the proof of Archimedeanness at each step by using completeness. Meanwhile, I find it insightful to point out that completeness implies Archimedean, since this unifies our understanding of the field, so it is pedagogically better to establish that it is Archimedean. Especially so since Hilbert's axioms include Archimedean and Huntington's do not. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2023 at 10:26
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I am confused by the failure to recognize the set-theoretic issue. Without requiring Archimedeanity, Conway’s Surreals are ordered, and satisfy the field axioms, and have no gaps! The only reason they can’t be a complete ordered field, if you use a no-gap definition of “completeness” rather than one involving sequences or the Archimedean property or a least upper bound property, is that they are too big to be a set.

You need to give a simple answer to “why aren’t the surreal numbers a second complete ordered field?”

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    $\begingroup$ If we were to use a surreals-style "no-gap" account of completeness, then the real field $\mathbb{R}$ itself would fail to be complete, since it has an unfilled gap between $0$ and the positive elements. To be sure, the surreal field is based on the idea of iteratively filling all such gaps, but no set-sized structure can be complete in that no-gaps sense. This is why, when speaking of the complete ordered field, we use the LUB account of completeness, which the surreal numbers lack. For example, there is no LUB in the surreal numbers to the infinitesimal surreal numbers. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 15:26
  • $\begingroup$ Joe, Conway’s No is non-Archimedean ordered field which has Dedekind's gaps. Perhaps, your point is that it satisfies Cantor's axiom? Because it does. If you worry that No is a real class, you may limit it to the ordered field of surreal numbers built up to the "moment" ε0 and it is still non-Archimedean ordered field which has Dedekind's gaps, but satisfies Cantor's axiom. Let's add that No is to ordered fields what R is to Archimedean ordered fields. Just as every Archimedean ordered field is contained in R, so every ordered field is contained in No. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 15:34
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, there are "gaps" in Conway's number system. They are discussed on pages 37--38 of On Numbers and Games. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 19:43
  • $\begingroup$ They’re not really “gaps” that are legal in ZFC! That’s my point. Any “gap” that can be defined by giving two sets of Numbers L and R such that every element of L is < every element of R is already filled by a surreal number. You can only make a true “gap” by using left and right “classes”, not sets! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2023 at 21:16
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    $\begingroup$ What in the world does "legal in ZFC" mean? You make ZFC sound like a police state! The fact is that $\mathbb{R}$ has no gaps at all (neither "legal" nor "illegal")! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 29, 2023 at 9:03

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