Let $R$ be a one-dimensional Noetherian domain with fraction field $K$, let $\tilde{R}$ be the integral closure of $R$ in $K$, and assume that $\tilde{R}$ is finitely generated as an $R$-module. (In this situation one sometimes says that $R$ is an "order" in the Dedekind domain $\tilde{R}$.) For a fractional $R$-ideal $I$ we have
$(R:I) := \{x \in K \mid x I \subset R\} = \operatorname{Hom}_R(I,R)$.
Question 1: Does it always hold that $(R:(R:\tilde{R})) = \tilde{R}$?
Question 2: Same question but with an intermediate ring $R \subset R' \subset \tilde{R}$. Does it always hold that $(R:(R:R')) = R'$?
Comments:
1) For any fractional $R$-ideal $I$ we have
$(R:I) = \operatorname{Hom}_R(I,R)= I^{\vee}$.
Therefore my questions are equivalent to asking whether $\tilde{R}$ and $R'$ must be reflexive as $R$-modules. A one-dimensional Noetherian domain $R$ is Gorenstein iff every fractional ideal is reflexive, so the answer to 2) is yes if $R$ is Gorenstein.
2) In a draft of a paper of mine, I wrote down $(R:(R:R')) = R'$ without any justification. Now I'm concerned! The main results of the paper apply to a class of orders that are in fact Gorenstein, so it's not so terrible, but I would like to extend these results to a larger class of orders if possible (and also build up background results in a graceful way).