1
$\begingroup$

I posted this question on StackExchange, people have upvoted it but I have not received any response. I read up here that it is okay to post unanswered StackExchange questions on Mathoverflow. So, posting it below.

Suppose $a : \mathbb R_+ \to \{-1,1\}$ is a measurable function. Let $X_0 =\frac12$. Consider a particle that moves on the $X-$axis as follows. $$X_t = X_0 + \int_0^t a_s ds$$ where the integral is a Lebesgue integral.

Fix a $T=\frac12$. So, $X_t \in [0,1]$ for all $t \le T$.

Let $S \subset [0,1]$ be a set such that $\ell(S) =1$, where $\ell(\cdot)$ is the Lebesgue measure.

Define, $$G:= \{t \le T: X_t \in S\}.$$

Is it the case that $\ell(G) = \ell([0,T]) = \frac12$?

That is, the particle spends almost no time outside $S$?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

Yes, by the coarea formula. In fact it is sufficient to assume that $a(t)$ is bounded and non-zero almost everywhere.

The function $X(t)$ is Lipschitz continuous (with Lipschitz constant 1), $g(t) = \mathbb{1}_{[0,T] \setminus G}(t)$ is integrable (in fact, bounded by $0$ and $1$), the zero-dimensional Hausdorff measure is just the counting measure, and thus $$ \begin{aligned} \int_0^T \mathbb{1}_{[0,T] \setminus G}(t) |X'(t)| dt & = \int_0^T g(t) |X'(t)| dt \\ & = \int_0^1 \biggl(\sum_{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x} g(t)\biggr) dx \\ & = \int_0^1 \# \{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x, t \notin G\} dx \\ & = \int_0^1 \# \{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x, X(t) \notin S\} dx \\ & = \int_0^1 \# \{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x, x \notin S\} dx \\ & = \int_{[0, 1] \setminus S} \# \{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x\} dx = 0 .\end{aligned} $$ The interand $\mathbb{1}_{[0,T] \setminus G}(t) |X'(t)|$ is non-negative, and hence it is equal to zero almost everywhere. However, $X'(t) = a(t) \ne 0$ almost everywhere, and hence $[0,T] \setminus G$ is necessarily a null set.

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot! I need to understand this answer which will take some time I guess because I do not know the Coarea formula you cited. One thing I don't quite understand is the step $ \int_{[0, 1] \setminus S} \# \{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x\} dx = 0$. Why is the integrand $0$? Also, I do not quite understand why $\int_0^T g(t) X'(t) dt = \int_0^1 \biggl(\sum_{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x} g(t)\biggr) dx $. I am sure I am missing something simple. $\endgroup$
    – avk255
    May 30, 2019 at 9:06
  • $\begingroup$ @avk255: Sorry, I was typing on a rush, there were some errors in my answer. Now everything should be OK. Regarding your questions: (1) $[0, 1] \setminus S$ has zero Lebesgue measure (by assumption), so the integral is zero. (2) This is precisely the coarea formula (although there was an absolute value missing): the sum is simply the integral over the zero-dimensional Lebesgue measure. $\endgroup$ May 30, 2019 at 10:05
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. I am going over your answer but it will take time for me to process it! What I am worried about is the $\# \{t \in [0, T] : X(t) = x\} $ may be $\infty$ no? $\endgroup$
    – avk255
    May 30, 2019 at 16:16
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, of course. Still, the domain of integration is a null set, and thus the integral vanishes. Feel free to ask if you have any questions, I often make dull mistakes. $\endgroup$ May 30, 2019 at 17:14
  • $\begingroup$ I think I have understood your answer. Thanks a lot! $\endgroup$
    – avk255
    Jun 2, 2019 at 8:11

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.