I don't understand the smoothness condition in the following theorem,
Let $f: X\longrightarrow Y$ be a projective morphism of $\underline{smooth}$ projective varieties such that $Rf_*\mathcal{O}_X=\mathcal{O}_Y$. Then the functor
\begin{equation} Lf^* : D^b(Y)\longrightarrow D^b(X) \end{equation} is fully faithful.
The proof is easy, \begin{equation} Hom_{D(X)}(Lf^*\mathcal{F}^{\bullet},Lf^*\mathcal{F}^{\bullet}) \simeq Hom_{D(Y)} (\mathcal{F}^{\bullet},Rf_*Lf^*\mathcal{F}^{\bullet}) \simeq Hom_{D(Y)}(\mathcal{F}^{\bullet},\mathcal{F}^{\bullet}\otimes Rf_*\mathcal{O}_X)\simeq Hom_{D(Y)}(\mathcal{F}^{\bullet},\mathcal{F}^{\bullet}). \end{equation}
As far as I know, the projection formula works for any proper morphism, so why we need both varieties to be smooth?
Can we generalize it to the case which $X$ is smooth and $Y$ is singular? (Sasha explained why this is impossible, but what about the other case, i.e. $X$ singular, and $Y$ is smooth)
Thanks!