In the paper of Bourgain, the way equation (3.78) is deduced from (3.69) and (3.76) seems via the following interpolation result. Let $(X,\mu)$ and $(Y,\nu)$ be two measure spaces and let $T$ be a linear operator from $L^1(X,\mu)+L^2(X,\mu)$ to $L^\infty(Y,\nu)+L^2(Y,\nu)$ such that
\begin{align} \|Tf\|_{L^\infty}&\leq A\|f\|_{L^1}, \\ \|Tf\|_{L^2}&\leq B\|f\|_{L^2}+D\|f\|_{L^1}. \end{align}
For $0<\theta<1$, let $p=\frac{1-\theta}{1}+\frac{\theta}{2}$, $\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}=1$. Then for some constant $C$ independent of $A,B,D$, we have $$\|Tf\|_{L^{q}}\leq C(A^{1-\theta}B^\theta\|f\|_{L^p}+A^{1-\theta}D^\theta\|f\|_{L^1}).$$
By scaling the measures $\mu$ and $\nu$ as well as the linear operator $T$, one can reduce it to the case when \begin{align} A=B=D=1. \end{align}
I tried to prove it by looking for the complex interpolation space between $L^1$ and $L^2\cap L^1$, as well as to directly prove it as to prove the Marcinkiewicz's interpolation inequality. But I could not find the correct proof. Any help is appreciated. Thank you!