Not sure if this is the right place to ask this, but the paper I am reading seems to be too specialised for mathstack (if you do not agree, pleas let me know and I will take down this question)
I am reading the paper 'The Tits alternative for $\operatorname{Out}(F_n)$ I: dynamics of exponentially growing automorphisms' by Bestvina, Feighn and Handel. In it, the following lemma occurs:
There is a homomorphism $PF_{\Lambda^+}: \operatorname{Stab}(\Lambda^+) \to \mathbb{Z}^k$ such that $\psi \in \ker PF_{\Lambda^+}$ if and only if $\Lambda^+ \notin \mathcal{L}(\psi)$ and $\Lambda^+ \notin \mathcal{L}(\psi^{-1})$ ($\psi \in \operatorname{Out}(F_n)$).
This lemma can be found on page 546 of the paper. The proof is the following: and proposition 3.3.3. is
question I do not understand why each $\mu(\Psi)$ other than $1$ occurs as the Perron-Frobenius eigenvalue of some irreducible matrix and why the set of Perron-Frobenius eigenvalues is discrete. Any chance someone knows this paper/has read this paper or could point me to some extra lecture which could clarify this proof for me?
My reasoning My confusion came from the following reasoning, which dr. Bestvina (through mail) told me was false (I can not figure out why): I think I could show from the definition of $\mu$ that $\mu(\operatorname{Id}) = 1$. Let $\psi \in \operatorname{Stab}(\Lambda^+)$ be an outer automorphism with $\mu(\psi) > 1$, then $\mu(\psi)$ is indeed a Perron-Frobenius eigenvalue (proposition 3.3.3.(4)). However, this would imply that $\mu(\psi^{-1})$ is not, by proposition 3.3.3.(2): $mu(\psi^{-1}) < 1$ and Perron-Frobenius eigenvalues $\lambda$ of non-negative, integer irreducible matrices satisfy $\lambda \geq 1$. I can not see where my reasoning is flawed, nor can I see why then every $\mu$ has to be a Perron-Frobenius eigenvalue