One can define the convergence of a sequence $(\Lambda_k)_k$ of full rank lattices as folow : $(\Lambda_k)\underset{k\rightarrow +\infty}{\longrightarrow} \Lambda \iff \forall k\in \mathbb{N} ,\exists B_k\in (\mathbb{R}^n)^n \text{ a $\mathbb{Z}$-basis of $\Lambda_k$}, \exists B\in (\mathbb{R}^n)^n \text{ a $\mathbb{Z}$-basis of $\Lambda$}, \underset{k\rightarrow + \infty}{\lim}B_k = B $. Also, we can identify the set of all full rank lattices with the quotient $GL_n(\mathbb{R})/GL_n(\mathbb{Z})$ because if $B_1,B_2$ are $\mathbb{Z}$-basis of a lattice $\Lambda$, if $A_1,A_2$ are the $(n\times n )$ matrix with vectors of $B_i$ as columns ($i\in \{1,2\}$), it exists a matrix $P\in GL_n(\mathbb{Z})$ such that $A_1 = PA_2$.
Thus I'm looking for a distance $d$ (if it exists) for $GL_n(\mathbb{R})/GL_n(\mathbb{Z})$ such that $(\Lambda_k)\underset{k\rightarrow +\infty}{\longrightarrow} \Lambda \iff d(\Lambda_k,\Lambda)\underset{k\rightarrow +\infty}{\longrightarrow} 0$.
A guess could be $d(X,Y) = \max(\underset{(A,B)\in X\times Y , P\in GL_n(\mathbb{Z})}{\sup} \Vert AB^{-1} - P\Vert,\underset{(A,B)\in X\times Y , P\in GL_n(\mathbb{Z})}{\sup} \Vert BA^{-1} - P\Vert)$ for $ (X,Y)\in (GL_n(\mathbb{R})/GL_n(\mathbb{Z}))^2$ because $X,Y$ should be close close if $X \approx GL_n(\mathbb{Z})\cdot Y = Y$. But the "$\sup$" is not even well defined...
Thank you.