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In an article I have the following lemma :

Let $d\geq 1$, $p>1$, $q\geq 1$, $\tau>0$, $s\in(0,1)$ and $a\in(0,1]$ s.t. $$\frac{1}{\tau}=a\left(\frac{1}{p}-\frac{s}{d}\right)+\frac{1-a}{q}.$$

Then $$\|u\|_{L^\tau(\mathbb R^d)}\leq C[u]_{W^{s,p}(\mathbb R^d)}^a\|u\|_{L^q(\mathbb R^d)}^{1-a},\quad u\in \mathcal C^1_0(\mathbb R^d),$$ for some positive constant independent of $u$.

I recall that $\mathcal C^1_0(\mathbb R^d)$ is the space of $\mathcal C^1$ function over $\mathbb R^d$ that are compactly supported and that $$[u]_{W^{s,p}(\mathbb R^d)}^p=\iint_{\mathbb R^{2d}}\frac{|u(x)-u(y)|^p}{|x-y|^{d+sp}}dxdy.$$

My question is : why doesn't it work for $p=1$ ? I let you the proof below. enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ This proof looks like taken from some book.What book? $\endgroup$ Apr 23, 2018 at 17:28
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    $\begingroup$ @PiotrHajlasz : thank you for your interest. Unfortunately there is no book ! I wrote it. The article is : sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/… $\endgroup$
    – idm
    Apr 23, 2018 at 17:38

1 Answer 1

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The issue with $p = 1$ is that some definitions of fractional Sobolev spaces that were equivalent when $p > 1$ (by the Gagliardo seminorm that you gave, by interpolation between functional spaces, by trace theory, by harmonic analysis (Littlewood-Paley decomeposition)) are not anymore equivalent when $p = 1$.

So, one should be careful about the case $p=1$ and check whether the Sobolev inequality holds for that definition.

With the Gagliardo seminorm as in the question, the Sobolev inequality holds (see for example Augusto C. Ponce, Elliptic PDEs, measures and capacities. From the Poisson equation to nonlinear Thomas-Fermi problems, EMS Tracts in Mathematics 23. Zürich: European Mathematical Society (EMS) (2016), Proposition 15.5 and thus the lemma also holds for $p = 1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot for your answer. So if I understand well, this lemma can not hold for an other Gagliardo semi-norm, right ? Do you have such example ? $\endgroup$
    – idm
    May 7, 2018 at 10:00
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    $\begingroup$ I am stating that it is holding for the Gagliardo seminorm, that when $p = 1$ the Gagliardo seminorm is not anymore equivalent to other quantities that are equivalent when $p > 1$. I think that the lemma should hold for several other norms, but this should be proved on a case by case basis. $\endgroup$ May 7, 2018 at 14:21
  • $\begingroup$ I'm very satisfied by your answer. Could you may be give my just two gagliardo semi norm that are not equivalent when $p=1$ ? $\endgroup$
    – idm
    May 7, 2018 at 14:46

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