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Let $f: \mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ be a polynomial function, and let $p$ be a critical point. Consider the ascending manifold $A_p$ consisting of all points whose limit under the gradient flow of $f$ is equal to $p$. Is $A_p$ a semialgebraic set? If not, is there an additional assumption on $f$ that makes it so?

This is an offshoot of a previous question of mine that did not get much attention.

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    $\begingroup$ The problem is not the function but the flow. If you allow yourself to work in larger o-minimal categories then one can say a lot of things. I've dealt with this in the paper www3.nd.edu/~lnicolae/tameflow.pdf $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2018 at 13:03
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    $\begingroup$ Now I am less sure, since $f(x,y)=x^2+y^3/3-2y$ has non-algebraic integral curves: $$y=\sqrt{2}\ \frac{a-x^\sqrt{2}}{a+x^\sqrt{2}}.$$ The basins for this $f$ are boring, but with a tweak maybe they would be transcendental too. $\endgroup$
    – user44143
    Commented Apr 3, 2018 at 18:06
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    $\begingroup$ I tried $x^4+x^2 y^2 + y^4 - x^2 - y^2$, which has an attracting fixed point at $(0,0)$, repelling fixed points at $(\pm 1/\sqrt{2}, 0)$, $(0, \pm 1/\sqrt{2})$ and saddle points at $(\pm 1/\sqrt{3}, \pm 1/\sqrt{3})$. The boundary of the basis of attraction of $(0,0)$ are the $8$ arcs flowing from repelling points to saddle points. I don't know how to prove those arcs aren't algebraic, but Mathematica ground away on the differential equation for a long time before giving up with no closed solution, so I'd guess they aren't. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 6, 2018 at 0:38
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    $\begingroup$ @DavidESpeyer, if you change the coefficient of $x^2y^2$ to 6, the basin remains similar, but you can integrate the curves explicitly and the boundary is algebraic. $\endgroup$
    – user44143
    Commented Apr 6, 2018 at 7:20
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    $\begingroup$ Informal argument I am having trouble filling in details of: Let $f(x,y)$ have a repelling fixed point where the ratio of the eigenvalues of the quadratic form is irrational. So we can put it in normal form $f(x,y) = \alpha x^2 + \beta y^2$ for some irrational $\beta/\alpha$. With two exceptions, the Morse flow lines look like $y = c x^{\beta/\alpha}$ near $(0,0)$. In particular, they can't be algebraic. (continued) $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 6, 2018 at 15:40

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Overview: The boundaries of the basins of attraction are lower dimensional stable manifolds. In two dimensions, they are the arcs flowing from repelling fixed points to saddle points. I expect that these are basically never analytic near the repelling fixed point. More specifically, if $f(x,y) = \alpha x^2 + \beta y^2 + (\mbox{higher order terms})$, then $dx/dt \approx 2 \alpha x$ and $dy/dt \approx 2 \beta y$, so the solution to the differential equation is roughly $x \approx \exp(2 \alpha t)$ and $y \approx \exp(2 \beta t)$, giving $x \approx y^{\beta/\alpha}$. If $\beta/\alpha$ is irrational, then this can't be algebraic.

Here is a case where I can make this analysis precise. Let $$f(x,y) = a x^2 (1-x^2/(2p^2)) + b y^2 (1-y^2/(2 q^2)) - c x^2 y^2$$ with $a$, $b>0$, $a/b$ irrational and $c > \max(a/p^2, b/q^2)$. Then $f$ has a repelling fixed point at $(0,0)$ (if Morse flow goes up hill), has attracting fixed points at $(\pm p, 0)$ and $(0, \pm q)$, and has a saddle point in each quadrant. The $x$ and $y$-axes are flow lines, so none of the other flow lines can cross them. I claim that none of the other flow lines through $(0,0)$ are analytic at $(0,0)$. I'll analyze the case of a flow line through the first quadrant, so $x(t)$, $y(t)>0$.

The Morse flow equation is $$\begin{bmatrix} dy/dt \\ dx/dt \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \partial f/\partial y \\ \partial f/\partial x \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 2y (b-by^2/q^2 - c x^2) \\ 2x (a - bx^2/p^2 - c y^2) \\ \end{bmatrix}. $$ This means that $$\frac{d \log y/dt}{d \log x/dt} = \frac{y^{-1} d y/dt}{x^{-1} d x/dt} = \frac{b-by^2/q^2 - c x^2}{a - ax^2/p^2 - c y^2}.$$ So, by L'Hospital, on any flow line where $x$ and $y \to 0^+$, we have $$\frac{\log y}{\log x} \to \frac{b}{a}.$$ If the flow line were an algebraic arc, then $\tfrac{\log y}{\log x}$ would approach a rational limit, a contradiction.

In particular, the flow from $(0,0)$ to the saddle point in the first quadrant is the boundary between the basins of attraction of $(p,0)$ and $(0,q)$, and is not algebraic.

Again, I don't think this example is special. I think it is just unusual in that I can carefully analyze the behavior as $(x,y) \to (0,0)$, since $x$ and $y$ divide $\tfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ and $\tfrac{\partial f}{\partial y}$.

Here is a picture. I took $p=1$, $q=1.1$ and $(a,b,c) = (0.2633, 0.4733, 1)$. Those values were chosen to make the attracting fixed points look like $-c(x^2+y^2)$, so the flow comes into them without any funny nodes.

enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for this detailed answer! Could you elaborate on why the limit of $\log y/\log x$ would be rational for an algebraic curve? I'm sure it's something simple, but I don't quite see it for curves not of the form $y^m=x^n$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8, 2018 at 14:35
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    $\begingroup$ Because every algebraic curve is locally parametrized as $x = x(u)$, $y=y(u)$ for some analytic functions $x(u)$ and $y(u)$. So, if $x = c u^m+\cdots$ and $y=d u^n+ \cdots$, then $\tfrac{\log y}{\log x} \to \tfrac{n}{m}$ as $u \to 0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 8, 2018 at 15:08

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