I'll state the theorem I am posing up front, and then explain why I think this theorem appears to be true. I am asking if anyone can prove it, or knows references to where it is proved. Please, forgive me if it is trivial, or if a counter example is trivial too.
If $\phi(s,z) : \mathbb{C}_{\Re(s)>0} \times \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ is holomorphic in both variables, and $$\phi(s_0,\phi(s_1,z)) = \phi(s_0 + s_1,z)$$ then necessarily $\frac{\partial^2}{\partial z^2} \phi(s,z) = 0$, so that $$\phi(s,z) = e^{qs}(z-z_0) + z_0$$ for $q,z_0 \in \mathbb{C}$ or $$\phi(s,z) = z+cs$$ for $c \in \mathbb{C}$
I ask this question because
A) I've never encountered a counter example in an extensive study of semigroups.
B) I can prove on a whole bunch of occasions if $\phi(a,z) = f(z)$; for $\Re(a) > 0$, for specific $f$; implies $\phi(s,z)$ cannot exist.
Examples include $f = \sin,\cos,\exp,\exp(p(z)), p(\exp(z))$ where $p$ is an arbitrary polynomial. If $f$ has a super attracting fixed point, no such $\phi$ exists. If $f^{\circ n}$ has fixed points $f$ doesn't have, then no such $\phi$ exists. In all these cases, no such solution exists for the orbits of $f$ either. I'm wondering if this is a universal trait. That, in some sense, the theorem above can be a kind of Liouville theorem.
Let's say that $\phi$ satisfies $f$, if $\phi(a,z) = f(z)$ for some $\Re(a) > 0$. To highlight the similarity to Liouville's theorem, the original theorem can be restated as
If $f:\mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ and some semigroup $\phi$ satisfies $f$, then $f= mz+b$ for some $m,b \in \mathbb{C}$.
Supposing the pair $f(\cdot)$ and $\phi(s,\cdot)$ don't have to map $\mathbb{C}$ to itself, that $\mathbb{C}$ is weakened to the unit disk $\mathbb{D}$, and $f(0) = 0$ with $|f'(0)| \neq 0,1$, then there always exists a $\phi$ satisfying $f$. It seems though, as soon as we lift from $\mathbb{D}$ (or any simply connected domain biholomorphic to $\mathbb{D}$) to $\mathbb{C}$ it fails.
I can show the result in a restricted form, which I also think is interesting
If $p:\mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C}$ is a polynomial, and there exists a semigroup $\phi$ satisfying $p$ then $p(z) = mz+b$ for some $m,b \in \mathbb{C}$
My main avenue of approach for deriving a contradiction has been to consider the Weierstrass product. It follows that if $\phi(s_0,z_n) = z_n$ then $\phi(s,z_n) = z_n$, so $\phi$ has a countable list of fixed points invariant on our choice of $s$, allowing us to say
$$\phi(s,z) = z + e^{g(s,z)}\prod_{n=0}^{\infty}(1-\frac{z}{z_n})e^{-p_n(z/z_n)}$$
where $p_n(z) = \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{z^j}{j}$. I've been fiddling around with this as it seems like a smart idea. Since $\lim_{s\to 0}\phi(s,z) = z$, and we have a semigroup property, it seems reasonable to think we can show that for all $\epsilon >0$ there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that $|\phi(\delta,z)-z| < C_\delta e^{|z|^{\epsilon}}$ then by Hadamard
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{|z_n|} < \infty$$
which greatly reduces the candidates for $f$ that can be satisfied by some $\phi$—$f$'s fixed points have to be sufficiently spaced out, so to speak.
Overall, I'm lost on the general case, and seem to be only able to prove it in specific circumstances. I think it says something rather profound about multiplication and addition, that, for another reason, they are incredibly special. Help, comments, suggestions, edits, anything is welcome, thanks.