The answer is yes. The derivative in $\rho$ of the integral in question can be written as
\begin{equation}
J:=\int_{a}^{c}G(b)h(b)\,db,
\end{equation}
where
\begin{equation}
G(b):=(b-a)e^{\rho(b-a)},
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
h(b):=F(b)^{n-3}\left[ (n-1)F(b)-(n-2)F(c)\right] f(b).
\end{equation}
It is enough to show that $J\ge0$.
Clearly, there is some $b_*\in[a,c]$ such that
$h(b)\le0$ for $b\in[a,b_*)$ and $h(b)\ge0$ for $b\in[b_*,c]$.
Moreover, the function $G$ is increasing, for each $\rho\ge0$.
Therefore,
\begin{equation}
J=\int_{[a,b_*)}G(b)h(b)\,db+\int_{[b_*,c]}G(b)h(b)\,db
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\ge \int_{[a,b_*)}G(b_*)h(b)\,db+\int_{[b_*,c]}G(b_*)h(b)\,db
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
=G(b_*)\int_{[a,c]}h(b)\,db
=G(b_*)F(a)^{n-2}[F(c)-F(a)]\ge0,
\end{equation}
as desired.