It is mentioned in some papers (Appendix in this paper, for example) that the (formal) solution of the fractional drift (or transport) equation $$ \partial_{t}^{\alpha}u(t,x)+\partial_{x}u(t,x)=0\quad\text{and}\quad u(0,x)=f(x)\quad\text{($x\in\mathbb{R}$, $t\ge0$)} $$ is given as $$ u(t,x)=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{t^{\alpha}}\phi\left(-\alpha,1-\alpha;-\frac{y}{t^{\alpha}}\right)f(x-y)dy. $$ Here $0<\alpha<1$, $\partial_{t}^{\alpha}$ denotes the fractional differential operator in Caputo sense defined by $$ \partial_{t}^{\alpha}g(t):=\frac{1}{\Gamma(1-\alpha)}\int_{0}^{t}\frac{g'(s)}{(t-s)^{\alpha}}ds=\frac{1}{\Gamma(1-\alpha)}\frac{d}{dt}\int_{0}^{t}\frac{g(s)-g(0)}{(t-x)^{\alpha}}ds $$ and $\phi$ is the Wright function defined by $$ \phi(\beta,\gamma;z):=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{z^{k}}{k!\Gamma(\beta k+\gamma)}. $$
This solution is given by taking the Laplace transform of the equation.
I would like to ask whether this function is indeed a solution of the fractional drift equation via direct calculations or not.
The problem I'm stacking is just one; I cannot calculate $\partial_{t}^{\alpha}u$. As you immediately think, I have tried to calculate as follows: $$ \partial_{t}^{\alpha}u=\int_{0}^{\infty}\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-y)^{k}}{k!\Gamma(-\alpha k+1-\alpha)}\partial_{t}^{\alpha}t^{-\alpha(k+1)} f(x-y)dy. $$ However, $\partial_{t}^{\alpha}t^{-\alpha(k+1)}$ does not converge. For the reason, I'm finding the other way to calculate but I don't find.
Thank you for advance.