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Let $F$ be a finite extension of $\mathbb Q_p$, where p is an odd prime. Let $G$ be a connected reductive group defined over $F$. Let $M, H$ be closed $F$-subgroups of $G$ (in particular, I'm interested in the case when $M$ is a Levi subgroup of $G$, and $H$ is the group of fixed points of an $F$-involution of $G$.)

I'm looking for a proof or a reference for the following claim.

Claim: if the Galois cohomology of $M\cap H$ over $F$ is trivial, then $(MH)(F) = M(F)H(F)$, where $X(F)$ denotes the $F$-rational points of an $F$-variety $X$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Let $K/F$ be a finite Galois extension, and let $m\in M(K)$, $h\in H(K)$ be elements such that $m\cdot h^{-1}$ equals $g$, for $g\in G(F)$. Consider the (non-Abelian) $1$-cocycle for $\Gamma = \text{Aut}(K/F)$ by $(m^{-1}\cdot \gamma(m))_{\gamma\in \Gamma}$. This equals the $1$-cocycle $(h^{-1}\cdot \gamma(h))_{\gamma\in \Gamma}$. By your hypothesis, this $1$-cocycle in $M\cap H$ is a coboundary, i.e., there exists $r\in (M\cap H)(K)$ such that $mr^{-1}$ and $rh^{-1}$ are Galois invariant. These are the $F$-points of $M$, resp. $H$, that multiply to $g$. $\endgroup$ Nov 26, 2015 at 11:42

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I am just posting my comment above as an answer. Let $K/F$ be a finite Galois extension, and let $m \in M(K)$ and $h\in H(K)$ be elements such that the element $g=m\cdot h^{-1}$ is Galois invariant, i.e., $g$ is an element of $G(F)$. Consider the non-Abelian $1$-cocycles in $G(K)$ for $\Gamma = \text{Aut}(K/F)$, $( m^{-1}\cdot \gamma(m) )_{\gamma\in \Gamma}$ and $(h^{-1}\cdot \gamma(h))_{\gamma\in \Gamma}$. Since $m\cdot h^{-1}$ is Galois invariant, these $1$-cocycles are equal, and they are $1$-cocycles in $(M\cap H)(K)$. By your hypothesis, this is a coboundary $(r^{-1}\cdot \gamma(r))_{\gamma\in \Gamma}$ for an element $r\in (M\cap H)(K)$. Then defining $\widetilde{m}=m\cdot r^{-1}$ and $\widetilde{h} = h\cdot r^{-1}$, these satisfy $\widetilde{m}\cdot \widetilde{h}^{-1}$ equals $g$, and both $\widetilde{m}$ and $\widetilde{h}$ are Galois invariant, i.e., they are elements of $M(F)$, resp. $H(F)$.

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    $\begingroup$ An alternative formulation of the same argument that works for a general field $F$ (possibly not perfect):: the cohomological hypothesis means that all $M\cap H$-torsors over $F$ have an $F$-point, and $\pi:M\rightarrow (MH)/H$ is a right $M\cap H$-torsor (as $MH$ is an orbit for $M \times H$ acting on $G$), so $\pi$ is surjective on $F$-points. But $(MH)(F)/H(F) \subset ((MH)/H)(F)$ with $M(F)$ landing in this subset, so $(MH)(F) = M(F)H(F)$. $\endgroup$
    – nfdc23
    Nov 26, 2015 at 14:20
  • $\begingroup$ That is a good point. $\endgroup$ Nov 26, 2015 at 14:38

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