Usually whenever one reads the definition of profinite group, one starts with an ordered set $I$ which is directed, meaning that for every $i,j\in I$ there is some $k\in I$ such that $i\leq k$ and $j\leq k$. Then one has a family of finite groups $\{G_i\}_{i\in i}$, compatible maps between them and defines $\varprojlim_i G_i$ as the subset of $\prod_{i\in I}G_i$ formed by coherent sequences.
The thing that is not clear at all to me is why we require $I$ to be directed, because it seems that dropping that assumption basically nothing would change and the definition would remain the same. Moreover, one thing we would like is for example to consider $\prod_iG_i$ a profinite group. This can be seen easily if we take the trivial ordering on $I$. But with this ordering, $I$ is not a directed set. Is there a way to see $\prod_i G_i$ as an inverse limit of finite group over a directed set? And more in general, if $\{P_i\}_{i\in I}$ is a family of profinite group and $P=\prod_iP_i$ is their direct product with the product topology, is $P$ always a profinite group?
Now let assume that $\{P_i\}_{i\in I}$ is a family of profinite groups for which the question above has an affirmative answer. Let $A$ be a discrete abelian group over which $P_i$ acts trivially for all $i$'s. Is it true that
$$H^1\left(\prod_iP_i,A\right)\simeq \bigoplus_iH^1(P_i,A)$$ Here $H^1$ stands for the usual first cohomology group with coefficients in $A$.
Thanks a lot to anyone which is willing to give me a hint!