Let $V$ be a vector space over a field $k$ equipped with a symplectic form $\omega$. Let $f:V \rightarrow V$ be a bijective set map such that the following hold.
For all $v \in V$ and $c \in k$, we have $f(c v) = c f(v)$.
For all $v,w \in V$ such that $\omega(v,w)=0$, we have $f(v+w) = f(v)+f(w)$.
Question: Must $f$ actually be linear? The answer is obviously false if $dim(V)=2$, so this question is only interesting for $dim(V) \geq 4$. If this question is too hard (or has a negative answer), I'd also be interesting in restricting myself to $f$ which also satisfy the following condition.
- For all $v,w \in V$ such that $\omega(v,w)=0$, we have $\omega(f(v),f(w))=0$.