Say we have a category $\mathcal C$, and for every category $\mathcal A$, we have a category $\mathcal D_{\mathcal A}$ and a functor $F_{\mathcal A} : \mathcal D_{\mathcal A} \to \mathcal C$, and, moreover, that this is 2-functorial in $\mathcal A$. Suppose further that $F_{\mathcal A}$ is a right adjoint for every $\mathcal A$, and call it's left adjoint $G_{\mathcal A}$. Then we have a function from categories $\mathcal A$ to functors $C \to \mathcal D_{\mathcal A}$, sending each category $\mathcal A$ to the functor $G_{\mathcal A}$.
Question: Is this function (2-)functorial in $\mathcal A$? (If yes, what is it's action on morphisms?; if no, is there an intuitive explanation of why construction of adjoints shouldn't be functorial?)
That is, given $\mathcal A$ and $\mathcal A'$ and a functor $f : \mathcal A \to \mathcal A'$ (which, by assumption, induces a functor $F_f : \mathcal D_{\mathcal A'} \to \mathcal D_{\mathcal A}$ and a natural transformation $T_f : F_{\mathcal A} \to F_{\mathcal A'}\circ F_f$), do we get a natural transformation between $F_f \circ G_{\mathcal A}$ and $G_{\mathcal A'}$?
I've been staring at the universal morphism characterization of adjunctions, and not seeing how it gives functoriality.