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Consider an integral $$ \int_0^\pi \frac{\cos(kx)}{\cosh(ax)}\ dx $$ there $k\in \mathbb{Z}, a\in \mathbb{R}.$ Of course that is Fourier coefficient for the function $f(x)=\frac{1}{\cosh(ax)}.$

Question 1. Is it possible to evaluate this integral via some known special functions or named numbers?

Question 2. Is it possible to evaluate the sign of this integral depending on $k$?

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    $\begingroup$ Wolfram alpha solves some special cases with hypergeometric functions here $\endgroup$
    – joro
    Commented Jul 6, 2014 at 12:17
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    $\begingroup$ $$\int_0^\infty\frac{\cos(kx)}{\cosh(ax)}dx~=~\frac\pi{2a}\cdot\text{sech}\bigg(k\cdot\frac\pi{2a}\bigg)$$ $$\int_0^\infty\frac{\sin(kx)}{\sinh(ax)}dx~=~\frac\pi{2a}\cdot\text{tanh}\bigg(k\cdot\frac\pi{2a}\bigg)$$ $\endgroup$
    – Lucian
    Commented Jul 6, 2014 at 20:47

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For $a \neq 0$, the integral is \begin{equation} I = \frac{1}{2 a} \int^{\pi a}_{-\pi a} \! dy \, \frac{e^{(1 + i k/a) y}}{1 + e^{2 y}} . \end{equation} Let $s = e^{2 y}$ to obtain $$ I = \frac{1}{2 a} \int^{e^{2 \pi a}}_{e^{-2 \pi a}} \! ds \, \frac{s^{-1/2 + i k/2 a}}{1 + s} . $$ Then let $t = s/(s + 1)$ to obtain $$ I = \frac{1}{2 a} \int^{(1 + e^{-2\pi a})^{-1}}_{(1 + e^{2\pi a})^{-1}} \! dt \, t^{-1/2 + i k/2 a} (1 - t)^{-1/2 - i k/2 a} . $$ Therefore the result is expressed in terms of incomplete Beta functions as $$ I = \frac{1}{2 a} [B_{(1 + e^{-2\pi a})^{-1}} (1/2 + i k / 2 a, 1/2 - i k/2 a) - B_{(1 + e^{2 \pi a})^{-1}} (1/2 + i k / 2 a, 1/2 - i k/2 a)] , $$ where $$ B_x(a, b) = \int_0^x \! dt \, t^{a - 1} (1 - t)^{b - 1} . $$

The original integral with the upper limit $\pi$ replaced by $\infty$ is a fairly well-known Fourier transform, and can be found in Gradshteyn and Ryzhik, for example. Instead of incomplete Beta functions, there is the usual Beta function (the second and third forms of the integrals above would correspond to standard formulae for the Beta function as integrals on $[0, \infty]$ and $[0, 1]$). Then there is a simplification using the Euler reflection formula, leading to the result stated by Lucian.

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    $\begingroup$ Thank you. But incomplete beta is not good for complex parameters, with branch cuts and so on. So it seems difficult to use the formulae practically, besides some other symbols for initial integral. $\endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Commented Jul 7, 2014 at 7:40
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Answer to question 1: $$\int_0^\pi \frac{\cos(kx)}{\cosh(ax)}\ dx=-\frac{\pi }{2 a\text{cosh}\left(\frac{\pi k}{2 a}\right)}$$ $${}+{\rm Re}\,\left[\frac{2e^{\pi (a+i k)}}{a+i k} \, _2F_1\left(1,\frac{a+i k}{2 a};\frac{i k}{2 a}+\frac{3}{2};-e^{2 a \pi }\right)\right]$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you Carlo, and to MATEMATICA. Will try to use it, simplify. $\endgroup$
    – Sergei
    Commented Jul 6, 2014 at 14:56

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