Let us start with the following definition.
Let $1\leqslant k\leqslant n$ and let $\omega_1,\omega_2\in\Lambda^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$. We say that $\omega_1$, $\omega_2$ are equivalent, if there exists $T\in GL(n,\mathbb{R})$ such that $$ T^\ast\omega_1=\omega_2, $$ where $T^\ast:\Lambda^k(\mathbb{R}^n)\rightarrow\Lambda^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$ is the standard lift of $T$ to $\Lambda^k(\mathbb{R}^n)$.
It is known that:
1) When $k=1$, if $\omega_1,\omega_2$ are equivalent if and only if either $\omega_1,\omega_2\neq 0$ or $\omega_1=\omega_2=0.$ This is trivial to check.
2) When $k=2$, $\omega_1,\omega_2$ are equivalent if and only if, there exists $r\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $$ \omega_1^r,\omega_2^r\neq 0,\text{ and }\omega_1^{r+1}=\omega_2^{r+1}=0, $$ where power corresponds to the wedge power. A proof of this result can be found in Denis Serres' book (Matrices: Theory and Applications).
QUESTION:
Is there any such result when $k\geqslant 3$? Probably $k=n-1,n$ cases are easy to handle. What I'm curious to know if there are analogous results when $3\leqslant k\leqslant n-2$?