I was reading http://www.idav.ucdavis.edu/education/CAGDNotes/Bernstein-Polynomials/Bernstein-Polynomials.html, the section on the derivative, which gives the derivative for a Bezier curve as:
$B_{k,n}(t) \frac{d}{dt} = n \left ( B_{k-1,n-1}(t) - B_{k,n-1}(t)\right )$
which it then shows the derivation steps for:
$B_{k,n}(t) \frac{d}{dt} = {n \choose k} t^k (1-t)^{n-k} \frac{d}{dt}$
... = $\frac{kn!}{k!(n-k)!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{n-k} + \frac{(n-k)n!}{k!(n-k)!} t^k (1-t)^{n-1-k}$
... = $\frac{kn!}{k!(n-k)!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{n-k} + \frac{n(n-1)!}{k!(n-1-k)!} t^k (1-t)^{n-1-k}$
... = $\frac{n(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{n-k} + \frac{n(n-1)!}{k!(n-1-k)!} t^k (1-t)^{n-1-k}$
... = $n \left (\frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{n-k} + \frac{(n-1)!}{k!(n-1-k)!} t^k (1-t)^{n-1-k} \right ) $
... = $n \left ( B_{k-1,n-1}(t) - B_{k,n-1}(t) \right )$
How does this last step go from $(term+term)$ to $(term-term)$? As far as I can tell, the two terms directly map to the lower order Bezier curves, so how does that plus sign turn into a minus?
Doing the steps in between the last and single-to-last, I get this:
... = $n \left (\frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{n-k} + \frac{(n-1)!}{k!((n-1)-k)!} t^k (1-t)^{(n-1)-k} \right ) $
... = $ n \left ( \frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{n-k} + B_{k,n-1}(t) \right ) $
... = $ n \left ( \frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!((n-1)-(k-1))!} t^{k-1} (1-t)^{(n-1)-(k-1)} + B_{k,n-1}(t) \right ) $
... = $ n \left ( B_{k-1,n-1}(t) + B_{k,n-1}(t) \right ) $
Since the two terms map directly to the lower order Bezier functions, why does the sign flip?