3
$\begingroup$

I know this is a stupid question, but I can't find a reference, or the result stated in in full generality online. I was hoping somebody knew:

Let $X = \textrm{Spec }A$ a noetherian scheme, $Z\hookrightarrow Y \hookrightarrow X$ a sequence of closed immersions with $Z,Y$ corresponding to the ideals $I,J$ respectively. Then we have a canonical inclusion (closed immersion) of blowups $\tilde{Y} = \textrm{Bl}_Z Y \hookrightarrow \tilde{X} = \textrm{Bl}_Z X$.

The scheme $\tilde{X}$ has an affine open cover with $U(a) = \textrm{Spec } B_a$ and $B_a$ the degree zero piece of the localization of the Rees algebra at $a \in I$.

$\textbf{Question}$: What is the ideal defining $\tilde{Y}\vert_{U(a)}$ in $U(a)$.

$\textbf{Question}$: At the level of Rees algebras, does the canonical map $\tilde{Y} \hookrightarrow \tilde{X}$ correspond to the natural surjection of graded rings $$ A \oplus I\oplus I^2 \cdots \twoheadrightarrow A/J \oplus \bar{I} \oplus \bar{I}^2 \oplus \cdots $$ where $\bar{I}$ denotes the image of $I$ in $A/J$. Certainly this is "natural".

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

Let me fix some notation, let's set $\pi : \widetilde{X} \to X$ be the blowup and set $\bar{I}$ to be the ideal sheaf $(\pi^{-1} I) \cdot O_{\widetilde{X}}$ (note this is an invertible sheaf) and set $\bar{J} := (\pi^{-1} J) \cdot O_{\widetilde{X}}$ (this is probably not invertible). Finally, for clarity, let's set $B = [B_a]_0$, the degree zero piece of $B$ localized at $a$. Note there is a natural map $R \to B$ since $R$ maps to the degree zero piece of the Rees algebra.

In terms of your two questions:

Question 1

The ideal sheaf $\widetilde{J}$ defining the strict transform $\widetilde{Y}$ on $\widetilde{X}$ is defined as follows.
$$\widetilde{J} = \bigcup_{n = 1}^{\infty} (\bar{J} : \bar{I}^n) =: (\bar{J} : \bar{I}^{\infty})$$ where the colon is taken over $O_{\widetilde{X}}$ (and the infinite power is a formal notation). In particular, as you can see this is a pain to compute. In terms of local coordinates in the notation you wrote, this is just: $$ \bigcup_{n = 1}^{\infty} ((J \cdot B) :_{B} \langle a^n \rangle_{B}). $$ You can find more about this for example in papers on resolution of singularities, I think I first learned this in section 7 of this PAPER by Bravo, Encinas and Villamayor.


Example

Let's do an example. Consider $X = \text{Spec } k[x,y]$ and let $Z = V(x,y)$ be the origin. Let's let $Y = V(x^3-y^4)$, some sort of particularly nasty cusp, so $J = (x^3-y^4)$.

There are two affine charts on the blowup. $B = k[x,y/x]$ and $B' = k[x/y,y]$. We first extend $J$ to these two charts. We get $$ J \cdot B = (x^3-y^4) \cdot B = (x^3 - (y/x)^4 x^4) \cdot B = = x^3(1 - (y/x)^4 x) \cdot B. $$ and $$ J \cdot B' = (x^3 - y^4) \cdot B' = ( (x/y)^3 y^3 - y^4 ) \cdot B' = y^3( (x/y)^3 - y) \cdot B' $$ The ideal sheaf $\bar{J}$ just corresponds to $J \cdot B$ and $J \cdot B'$. The ideal sheaf corresponding to the strict transform corresponds to $(1 - (y/x)^4 x) \cdot B$ and $(1 - (y/x)^4 x) \cdot B$. In other words, strip away the $x^3$ and $y^3$ (respectively) which simply vanish on the exceptional divisor.


Question 2

I believe this is right. Think about what the kernel of that map is on the $B_a$, certainly you have $J$, but you also have things that are knocked in there by powers of $a$ (due to the localization).

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Hi Karl, Thanks for your answer! I'm having a little bit of difficulty understanding your $\tilde{J}$. It seems like your $J$ is the same as my $J$, and that $J\cdot B_a$ refers to the intersection with the degree zero part of the localization of the Rees algebra at $a$. I very recently found an article of Brian Conrad which says that this $J\cdot B_a$ is already the ideal of the strict transform. Did I understand your notation correctly? (The article is here: line 23, p5, math.stanford.edu/~conrad/papers/nagatafinal.pdf) $\endgroup$
    – 6672
    Nov 1, 2012 at 14:54
  • $\begingroup$ For me, $\widetilde{J}$ is the ideal sheaf of the strict transform. $\bar{J}$ is definitely not the strict transform. Brian may be being a little loose with his usage of pull-back or his map might be a small map on $X$ or something (I didn't read the surrounding text). $\endgroup$ Nov 1, 2012 at 15:14
  • $\begingroup$ I've changed notation a little. In particular, I'm not using $B_a$ for the degree zero part any more since that seems to be causing confusion. $\endgroup$ Nov 1, 2012 at 15:26
  • $\begingroup$ Karl, I worked it out and the two statements (Brian's and yours) are in fact the same, and the difference is purely notational. However, the statement I made above is wrong, and is not what appears in Brian's article. To get a correct statement I should replace $J\cdot B_a$ with (in terms of your new notation) $J_a \cdot B$ where the intersection happens inside not $B_a$, but the localization $C$ of $B$ at $a \in A \subset B$ (so not just the degree $1$ a of the Rees alg) and $J_a$ denotes the extension of the ideal $J$ to $C$. If you would like to see it, I can include a careful proof below. $\endgroup$
    – 6672
    Nov 2, 2012 at 23:55

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.