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In this article the author proves the following lemma:

LEMMA: $\forall N \in \Bbb N$, there exists $v=v_N$ with compact support so that $$[M_S(M_S v)^\delta(x)]^{1/\delta} \geq c_\delta NM_S v(x), \forall x \in [0,1]^2.$$

Here $M_S$ is the strong maximal operator (averages on rectangles in $\Bbb R^2$), $\delta >0$ and $c_\delta$ is a constant that depends on $\delta$.

In order to prove it, for all $k, j \in \Bbb Z$, the author defines $Q_{k,j}$ as the unit square with lower left corner at the point $(k,j)$ and for $k=1,2,\ldots, N$, $d_k$ is the integral part of $2^k/k$. Then he defines $$v(x)=v_N(x)=\sum_{1 \leq k \leq N} 2^k \chi_{Q_{k,d_k}}(x),$$ and proves that $M_S v(x) \leq 2$ $\forall x \in [0,1]^2$ and that $f=M_S v(x) \geq k/2$ on $Q_{k,j}$ for $j=1,2,\ldots N$ provided that $k \geq 2 \log_2 N$. Finally, he takes the square $R=[0,N+1]^2$ and he obtains that for all $x \in [0,1]^2$, $$[M_S(M_S v)^\delta (x)]^{1/\delta} \geq [M_S(f)^\delta ((0,0))]^{1/\delta} \geq \left( |R|^{-1} \int_R (f)^\delta dy \right)^{1/\delta} \geq c \left[ (N+1)^{-2} \sum_{2 \log_2 N \leq k \leq N} N(k)^\delta \right]^{1/\delta}=O(N).$$

Using this definition of the big O notation, $O(N)$ means that $|O(N)| \leq CN$ for all $x$ such that $x_i$ is sufficiently for some $i$.

I really don't see why the quantity on the left is in $O(N)$ nor why this implies the lemma of the article.

Note: I reposted the question in order to improve it.

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  • $\begingroup$ I assume they mean $\Omega(N)$ rather than $O(N)$, as it is supposed to be a lower bound. But I have no idea about the rest. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 18, 2021 at 11:12
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    $\begingroup$ What is $N(k)$? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 19, 2021 at 0:36
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    $\begingroup$ Please cease and desist making edits that insert and remove a single character. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 22, 2021 at 2:00
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    $\begingroup$ The only reason for doing that is to bump your question to the top of the stack at the expense of other questions also vying for attention. This sort of behavior is very strongly frowned upon in this community. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 22, 2021 at 2:06
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    $\begingroup$ Beware J.Doe. Todd is completely right. And arguing that you didn't find any rule against your behaviour isn't going to help your case. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 23, 2021 at 7:04

1 Answer 1

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The $O(1)$ is indeed an abuse of notations, but I personally find pretty clear what is meant by it, given the context. In fact the statement would have been crystal clear and rigorously meaningful if the author had simply written $\geq CN$ instead of $=O(N)$... This is precisely the definition of $\Omega(N)$. But choosing one or the other is just a matter of aesthetics and personal taste, I guess (for example in France we are never taught the $\Omega(N)$ notation and I only learnt it after 10++ years of professional maths activity). Anyway, as far as the "real" maths are concerned, here is an answer to your question.

Writing it as a Riemann sum, it is straightforward to check that the sum $$ S_N:=\sum_{k=0}^N k^\delta=N^{1+\delta}\sum\limits_{k=0}^N\left(\frac kN\right)^\delta\frac 1N \sim N^{1+\delta}\int_0^1 x^\delta dx =\frac{1}{\delta+1}N^{1+\delta} $$ as $N\to+\infty$. It is then easy to check that starting the series fom $k=2\log_2N$ doesn't change anything to the matter (you would get a small $o(1)$ negligible correction to the integral in the Riemann sum). In other words, $$ \tilde S_N:=\sum_{k=2\log_2 N}^N k^\delta \sim \frac{1}{\delta+1}N^{1+\delta} $$ as well. Putting the pieces together, and recalling the key property that $M_S v(x)\leq 2$, you get \begin{multline*} [M_S(M_S v)^\delta (x)]^{1/\delta} \geq [M_S(f)^\delta ((0,0))]^{1/\delta} \geq \left( |R|^{-1} \int_R (f)^\delta dy \right)^{1/\delta} \\ \geq c \left[ (N+1)^{-2} \sum_{2 \log_2 N \leq k \leq N} N(k)^\delta \right]^{1/\delta} =c\Bigg[\frac{N}{(N+1)^2}\tilde S_N\Bigg]^{1/\delta}\\ \sim c_\delta\Bigg[\frac{N}{(N+1)^2}N^{1+\delta}\Bigg]^{1/\delta}\\ \sim c_\delta N \geq c_\delta\frac{N}{2}2 \geq c'_\delta N M_Sv(x) \end{multline*}

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  • $\begingroup$ Did you use the fact that $\frac{N}{N+1} \to 1$ as $N \to \infty$ to get the first step of the last line? $\endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Commented Mar 23, 2021 at 0:31
  • $\begingroup$ yes, I'll edit. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 23, 2021 at 6:59
  • $\begingroup$ Ok, I get it. But I'm having trouble to understand something. This proves the inquality of the lemma for $N$ large, but the llemma says it's true $\forall N$. $\endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Commented Mar 23, 2021 at 19:47
  • $\begingroup$ This is a really basic question in elementary real analysis, think harder about the first occurrence of $\sim$ in my computation (for any $\epsilon$ therer exists $N_0$ such that for all $N\geq N_0\dots$, and handle separately the case $N\leq N_0$). In the future I suggest you post this type of questions on math.SE, this is clearly not research level (FYI: I tried to cast a close vote but the bounty prevents me from doing so). $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 24, 2021 at 9:08
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    $\begingroup$ I had already asked this question on math.SE, but nobody bothered to answer it or to read the part of the article included in the question. But that's ok, you can delete your answer so I can delete the question after the bounty expires. $\endgroup$
    – J. Doe
    Commented Mar 25, 2021 at 6:22

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