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Suppose that $X_1,..,X_n$ are i.i.d real random variables with density $f \in L_2(\mathbb R)$, and that $g_i$ are function forming an orthonormal basis of $L_2(\mathbb R)$, i.e :

$$f(x) = \sum\limits_{i} a_i g_i(x) \text{ for } a_i = \int g_i(x) f(x) dx$$

Set the Monte-Carlo coefficients to be $\widehat{a_i} = \frac{1}{n} \sum\limits_{i=1}^{n} g_i(X_i)$, and denote $\hat{f}(x) = \sum\limits_{i} \widehat{a_i} g_i(x)$.

I want to show that: $$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \lVert f - \hat{f} \rVert_{2}^2 = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \sum\limits_{i} (a_i - \widehat{a_i})^2 = 0$$

I am able to show that the estimators $\widehat{a_i}$ are unbiaised and converge correctly to $a_i$, but here I need some kind of uniform convergence, right ?

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2 Answers 2

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  1. The (more) correct definition of the $\widehat{a_i}$'s should be $$\widehat{a_{n,i}}:=\frac1n\,\sum_{j=1}^n g_i(X_j).$$

  2. So, $$\widehat{a_{n,i}}=\int_{\mathbb R}\mu_n(t) g_i(t)\,dt,$$ where $$\mu_n(t):=\frac1n\,\sum_{j=1}^n \delta_{X_j}(t)$$ and $\delta_x$ is the Dirac probability measure at $x$, viewed as the (say) Schwartz distribution. So, the $\widehat{a_{n,i}}$'s may be viewed as the "coordinates" of the Schwartz distribution $\mu_n$ in the basis $(g_i)$ of $L_2(\mathbb R)$. So, if we had $\sum_i \widehat{a_{n,i}}^2<\infty$, we would also have $\mu_n\in L_2(\mathbb R)$, which is of course false. So, $\sum_i \widehat{a_{n,i}}^2=\infty$ for any basis $(g_i)$ of $L_2(\mathbb R)$, and hence $\sum_i (a_i-\widehat{a_{n,i}})^2=\infty$ for any real $a_i$'s such that $\sum_i a_i^2<\infty$.

  3. Another view at why your idea of estimation of the density $f$ did not succeed is that the sequence $(\mu_n)$ of the (empirical) probability measures converges to the probability measure (say $\mu$) with density $f$ only weakly, and the probability measure $\mu_n$ does not even have a density, to converge to $f$ in any sense or to do anything else.

  4. Generally, it appears unnatural to estimate a pdf in an $L^2$ framework. The natural framework should be $L^1$. This is the view advocated (I think persuasively) by some authors, including Devroye and Gyorfi, who write that their book "develops, from first principles, the ``natural'' theory for density estimation, L1, and shows why the classical L2 theory masks some fundamental properties of density estimates".

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the extensive explanation. So, by your point 3., am i right to say that $\widehat{a_i}$ converges weakly to $a_i$ ? Which means that for all $i$, $(a_i - \widehat{a_i})^2 \to 0$. Then, why the fuck does the sum for all $i$ not converge... Dont get me wrong, I got your argument, it convinced me, but I still do not feel it. $\endgroup$
    – lrnv
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 16:26
  • $\begingroup$ @lrnv : (i) It does not make sense to say that $\widehat{a_i}$ converges weakly to $a_i$. However, it is true that $\widehat{a_{n,i}}\to a_i$ (as $n\to\infty$) if the function $g_i$ is bounded and continuous; this follows because the empirical probability measure $\mu_n$ converges weakly to the probability measure $\mu$ with density $f$. (ii) If $b_{n,i}\to b_i$ for each $i$, this does not in general imply that $\sum_i b_{n,i}\to\sum_i b_i$; e.g. consider $b_{n,i}:=1(n=i)$ and $b_i:=0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 16:41
  • $\begingroup$ Again, thanks for the details. So to clarify, $\widehat{a_i} -> a_i$ but there is no way of making $\lVert f - \hat{f} \rVert_2^2$ go to 0 ? (according to point 2.). It it still strenge to me, as $\mathbb E( \lVert f - \hat f \rVert_2^2) \to 0$ and $\lVert f - \hat f \rVert_2$ is always positive.. $\endgroup$
    – lrnv
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 16:48
  • $\begingroup$ @lrnv : You have $\sum_i \widehat{a_{n,i}}^2=\infty$. So, the very definition $\hat f(x): = \sum_i\widehat{a_i} g_i(x)$ makes no sense. So, you don't even have a $\hat f$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 16:55
  • $\begingroup$ Yes you are right, I see it now. $\endgroup$
    – lrnv
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 17:03
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I think the sum on the rhs is not generally finite. Take the case where the $g_i(x) = $ ith Walsh function ( which satisfy $g_i^2 = 1$ ) and only one of the $a_i < \infty$ , n=1, and $f$ is uniform. Then you are summing $\Sigma g_i^2(X_1)$. I've left out the 1 non zero coefficient, but it doesn't change the point. I think the same issue occurs with larger n.

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  • $\begingroup$ I'm not quite getting your point. I started by saying that $f$ belong to L_2, which means that $f$ converges. If i read you correctly, you propose a case where coefficients are infinite, which means that the function is not even analytic, and certainly not square-integrable. So this is different. Did i read you correctly ? $\endgroup$
    – lrnv
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 12:53
  • $\begingroup$ Never mind my previous comment, now i get what you mean. Ok the walsh basis is quite peculiar. Maybe we could restrict to basis of continuous functions ? The functions in my basis are even integrable, derivable, etc.. What i mean is: Is there some condition on the basis we could express that would make my assumption true ? EDIT: Fundamentally, i dont think i am summing the squares of the basis functions... I'm summing the square distances between them and the empirical ones ! $\endgroup$
    – lrnv
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 13:01
  • $\begingroup$ I think you can't take the obvious estimate for f, it's probably not an L^2 function, and you probably need to truncate the sum ($ \hat{f}(x) = \sum\limits_{i}^{u(n)} \widehat{a_i} g_i(x)$ where u(n) some upper bound) to get a good estimate. I believe I've seen this issue, but don't recall the details. $\endgroup$
    – mike
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 14:16
  • $\begingroup$ For my problem i do need the full sum, although yes people usually truncate the estimator. So there is no convergence at all that i an obtain for these kind of estimators ? $\endgroup$
    – lrnv
    Commented Jan 29, 2021 at 14:21

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