Suppose that $X_1,..,X_n$ are i.i.d real random variables with density $f \in L_2(\mathbb R)$, and that $g_i$ are function forming an orthonormal basis of $L_2(\mathbb R)$, i.e :
$$f(x) = \sum\limits_{i} a_i g_i(x) \text{ for } a_i = \int g_i(x) f(x) dx$$
Set the Monte-Carlo coefficients to be $\widehat{a_i} = \frac{1}{n} \sum\limits_{i=1}^{n} g_i(X_i)$, and denote $\hat{f}(x) = \sum\limits_{i} \widehat{a_i} g_i(x)$.
I want to show that: $$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \lVert f - \hat{f} \rVert_{2}^2 = \lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \sum\limits_{i} (a_i - \widehat{a_i})^2 = 0$$
I am able to show that the estimators $\widehat{a_i}$ are unbiaised and converge correctly to $a_i$, but here I need some kind of uniform convergence, right ?