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Consider the following paper by Van Daele en Maes Notes on compact quantum groups. For convenience of the reader, here is a picture of the relevant section: enter image description here

(1) How is compact operator defined in this context? For example, what is meant with $x$ is a compact operator from $H_1 \to H_2$? Is this the usual definition of compactness? I.e. the image of the unit ball is precompact. Or is something else going on?

(2) In the proof, one considers the object $\mathcal{B}_0(\mathcal{H}_1, \mathcal{H}_2)\otimes A$. How is this tensor product defined in this context? Surely $\mathcal{B}_0(\mathcal{H}_1, \mathcal{H}_2)$ is no $C^*$-algebra so this is not a tensor product of $C^*$-algebras.

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  • $\begingroup$ I will offer a little un-asked for advice. For basic ideas like compact operators, you might ask on math.stackexchange. Or just use Google. Something I have learnt over the years is that mathematics research is slow, and you cannot have too much background knowledge. If you find yourself getting stuck then going away and reading widely, looking in textbooks, trying exercises (e.g. those in Kadison+RIngrose about compact operators) takes time, but will massive improve understanding. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 21, 2020 at 10:21
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    $\begingroup$ This background reading will then pay off over time, as reading research papers becomes easier and quicker. But I know it can be hard when you feel like you are getting nowhere on the main task (which in your case is learning about compact quantum groups, I guess). But maths is a long-term game. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 21, 2020 at 10:22
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    $\begingroup$ @MatthewDaws Thanks for the comments/answer. Obviously I know what a compact operator is between Hilbert spaces, but I could not make sense of the tensor product so maybe another definition was used. For example in the context of Hilbert $C^*$-modules one also speaks about compact operators! The actual question was about the tensor product involved, which you answered quite nicely. Do you think the tensor product question would have been a better fit for math stackexchange? Maybe, but I doubt I would get an answer there.. $\endgroup$
    – user167952
    Commented Nov 21, 2020 at 11:01

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Yes, an operator is compact if it maps the unit ball into a precompact set. This is the usual definition for Banach spaces. For Hilbert spaces the same applies (see e.g. these notes). Indeed, a bounded linear $T:H_1\rightarrow H_2$ is compact if and only if $T^*T$ is compact, iff $TT^*$ is compact, iff $T^*$ is compact.


To deal with the second question, I think one proceeds as follows. Firstly, observe that there is a $*$-algebra isomorphism $$ \mathcal B(H_1\oplus H_2) \cong \begin{pmatrix} \mathcal B(H_1) & \mathcal B(H_2, H_1) \\ \mathcal B(H_1, H_2) & \mathcal B(H_2) \end{pmatrix}. $$ To see this, think about the matrix acting on $H_1\oplus H_2$ written as a column vector. Under this isomorphism, compact operators behave as you might hope, $$ \mathcal K(H_1\oplus H_2) \cong \begin{pmatrix} \mathcal K(H_1) & \mathcal K(H_2, H_1) \\ \mathcal K(H_2, H_1) & \mathcal K(H_2) \end{pmatrix}. $$ Thus I can speak of $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2)$ as a "corner" of $\mathcal K(H_1\oplus H_2)$.

So, one can define $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2) \otimes A$ as the closure of $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2) \odot A$ inside $\mathcal K(H_1\oplus H_2) \otimes A$. Things are nicer than this: let $p_i$ be the projection of $H_1\oplus H_2$ onto $H_i$. Then $p_2 \mathcal K(H_1\oplus H_2) p_1$ is isomorphic to $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2)$, and $p_i\otimes 1\in M(\mathcal K(H_1\oplus H_2)\otimes A)$. One can check that $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2) \otimes A$ is isomorphic to $(p_2\otimes 1)(\mathcal K(H_1\oplus H_2)\otimes A)(p_1\otimes 1)$.


The notes by Maes and Van Daele are nice, but I do find that there are various little inaccuracies, or points like this which are not (well) explained. The original papers by Woronowicz are terse, but I think a pleasure to read, and will improve your intuition about the subject. You could also look at the book of Timmermanns, but that takes a different approach.


In a comment, Ruy points our how to get this tensor product via representing on a Hilbert space.

An approach using more theory would be to use Hilbert $C^\ast$-modules (I follow chapter 4 of Lance's book). $\mathcal K(H_1, H_2)$ is a right module over $\mathcal K(H_1)$ for the "inner-product" $(S|T) = S^*T$. $A$ is a module over itself. The exterior tensor product of modules gives $\mathcal K(H_1, H_2) \otimes A$ as a right module over $\mathcal K(H_1)\otimes A$. A rather tedious check shows that the norms of all three approaches are the same.

For the application, we need:

  • For a state $h\in A^*$ we want to make sense of $\iota\otimes h$ as a map $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2)\otimes A \rightarrow \mathcal K(H_1,H_2)$;
  • For a $*$-homomorphism $\Phi:A\rightarrow A\otimes A$ we need to make sense of $\iota\otimes\Phi$ as a homomorphism (suitable interpreted) $\mathcal K(H_1,H_2)\otimes A \rightarrow \mathcal K(H_1,H_2)\otimes A \otimes A$.

I think my original approach, of viewing things as a "corner" of $C^\ast$-algebra, is probably the easiest way to get these properties.

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    $\begingroup$ Another definition of $\mathcal K(H_1, H_2)\otimes A$, more reminiscent of the usual spatial tensor product, is to take a faithful representation of $A$ on some Hilbert space $H$, and then look at the closed linear span of operators of the form $x\otimes a$ within $\mathcal B(H_1\otimes H, H_2\otimes H)$, for all $x\in \mathcal K(H_1, H_2)$ and $a\in A$. $\endgroup$
    – Ruy
    Commented Nov 21, 2020 at 14:19
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    $\begingroup$ @Matthew Daws. I have to sincerely thank you for the suggestion to look at the original papers by Woronowicz. Some aspects have become very clear now! $\endgroup$
    – user167952
    Commented Nov 21, 2020 at 18:25
  • $\begingroup$ @Matthew Daws. I'm sorry to disturb you but I have a follow-up question. To make sense of the theorem statement, it looks like it is used that we have a canonical inclusion $M(\mathcal{K}(H_1) \otimes A) \subseteq M(\mathcal{K}(H_1 \oplus H_2) \otimes A)$. Do you know how we can obtain this inclusion? It seems to be natural to consider the natural inclusion map $i: \mathcal{K}(H_1) \otimes A \to \mathcal{K}(H_1 \oplus H_2) \otimes A \subseteq M(\mathcal{K}(H_1 \oplus H_2) \otimes A)$ but this does not seem to be non-degenerate, so I'm a bit unsure how to get this inclusion. $\endgroup$
    – user167952
    Commented Nov 23, 2020 at 18:59
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, I see why you might want this. Further, I'm not sure this would help you: what you really want is to know how to form $(x\otimes 1)u$ where $x\in\mathcal K(H_1,H_2)$ and $u\in M(\mathcal K(H_1)\otimes A)$. I think! One way around this is to observe that $x^*x \in \mathcal K(H_1)$ and so the polar decomposition $x = p|x|$ has $p$ a partial isometry $H_1\rightarrow H_2$ and $|x|\in\mathcal K(H_1)$. Then first form $(|x|\otimes 1)u$ in $\mathcal K(H_1)\otimes A$, and then multiply by $p\otimes 1$ to get a member of $\mathcal K(H_1, H_2)\otimes A$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 23, 2020 at 21:10
  • $\begingroup$ @Matthew Daws. Thanks! I will see if that is useful in this context. However, is the claim I make about the inclusion of multiplier algebras actually true? I.e.do we have an inclusion $M(K(H_1)\otimes A)\subseteq M(K(H_1\oplus H_2)\otimes A)$? $\endgroup$
    – user167952
    Commented Nov 23, 2020 at 21:20

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