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If $\nu$ is a finite measure on $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B(\mathbb R))$, let $\nu^{\ast k}$ denote the $k$-fold convolution¹ of $\nu$ with itself for $k\in\mathbb N_0$, $$\exp(\nu)\mathrel{:=}\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{\nu^{\ast k}}{k!}$$ and $$\operatorname{CPoi}_\nu\mathrel{:=}\frac{\exp(\nu)}{\exp(\nu)(\mathbb R)}.$$ Moreover, let $$\mathcal L_\nu(t)\mathrel{:=}\int\nu({\rm d}x)e^{-tx}\;\;\;\text{for $t\in\mathbb R$}$$ denote the Laplace transform of $\nu$.

Let $\mu$ be a probability measure on $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B(\mathbb R))$. Remember that $\mu$ is called infinitely divisible if for all $k\in\mathbb N$, there is a probability measure $\nu$ on $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B(\mathbb R))$ with $\mu=\nu^{\ast k}$.

We can show that

  1. $\mu$ is infinitely divisible;

and

  1. There is a sequence $(\nu_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ of finite measures on $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B(\mathbb R))$ with $\operatorname{CPoi}_{\nu_n}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}\mu$ weakly

are equivalent.

Now assume $\mu$ is a probability measure on $([0,\infty),\mathcal B([0,\infty)))$. By the Lévy-Khinchin formula,

  1. $\mu$ is infinitely divisible;

and

  1. There is a $\alpha\ge0$ and a $\sigma$-finite measure $\nu$ on $((0,\infty),\mathcal B((0,\infty)))$ with $$-\ln\mathcal L_\mu(t)=\alpha t+\int1-e^{-tx}\:\nu({\rm d}x)\;\;\;\text{for all $t\ge0$}\tag4$$

are equivalent.

Question: How can we show that if (3.) holds, then the $\nu$ from (4.) is equal to the vague limit² of $\left.n\mu^{\ast1/n}\right|_{(0,\:\infty)}$?


¹ I.e. $\nu^{\ast 0}:=\delta_0$ is the Dirac measure on $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B(\mathbb R))$ at $0$ and if $k\in\mathbb N$, then $\nu^{\ast k}$ is the pushforward $\tau_k\left(\nu^{\otimes k}\right)$ of the $k$-fold product measure $\nu^{\otimes k}$ of $\nu$ with itself under the map $$\tau_k:\mathbb R^k\to\mathbb R\;,\;\;\;x\mapsto x_1+\dotsb+x_k.$$

² I.e. $$n\int_{(0,\:\infty)}f\:{\rm d}\mu^{\ast1/n}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}\int f\:{\rm d}\nu\;\;\;\text{for all }f\in C_0((0,\infty))\tag5.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ This follows from the general fact that if $\mu_t = \mu^{*t}$ for $t > 0$, then $t^{-1} \mu_t$ converges vaguely in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{0\}$ to the Lévy measure $\nu$. This, in turn, is closely related to the fact that if $p_t f = f * \mu_t$, then $t^{-1} (p_t f - f)$ converges to the generator applied to $f$ whenever $f$ is $C^2$. You should be able to find these facts in most books on Lévy processes, such as the one by Sato, but I do not have an exact reference at hand. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 19:21
  • $\begingroup$ @MateuszKwaśnicki How do you define $\mu^{\ast t}$ for non-integer $t$? And with generator, do you mean the $C_c^\infty$-generator of $p_t$? $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 19:43
  • $\begingroup$ In the same way as $\mu^{*1/n}$ in your question. For example, the characteristic function of $\mu$ is $e^{\phi(z)}$ for a negative definite $\phi$, and the characteristic function of $\mu^{*t}$ is $e^{t \phi(z)}$ for $t \geqslant 0$. This is all very standard, you may have a look at, say, Sato's Lévy processes and infinitely divisible distributions, Sections 7 and 8. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2020 at 20:39
  • $\begingroup$ @MateuszKwaśnicki I've taken a look at Sato. Is the measure $\mu^\ast t$ uniquely determined by $\mu$ (assuming $\mu$ is infinitely divisible) for irrational $t$? Or to state this question differently: Is $\mu^{\ast t}$ the unique probability measure on $\mathbb R^d$ such that $$\varphi_{\mu^{\ast t}}=\varphi_\mu^t$$ for all $t\ge0$? The uniqueness is clear to me for rational $t$. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Oct 29, 2020 at 9:34
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    $\begingroup$ I do not have access to Sato at the moment, so I am not sure how he defines $\mu^{*t}$, but in any case it is unique. Either uniquely determined by the characteristic function, or uniquely defined as the weak* limit of approximations by rational powers. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 29, 2020 at 10:11

2 Answers 2

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There are at least three ways to show that $n \mu^{*1/n}$ converges to $\nu$ vaguely in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{0\}$. Let $X_t$ be the Lévy process such that $X_1$ has distribution $\mu$, and let $f$ be a smooth, compactly supported $f$ on $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{0\}$. It is sufficient to show that $t^{-1} \mathbb{E} f(X_t) \to \int f(x) \nu(dx)$ as $t \to 0^+$. Here are brief descriptions of the three methods.

  1. Write $X_t = Y_t + Z_t$, where $Y_t$ is a compound Poisson process with Lévy measure $\nu$ restricted to $\mathbb{R} \setminus (-\varepsilon, \varepsilon)$ for a sufficiently small $\varepsilon > 0$ (such that $f = 0$ on $[-2\varepsilon, 2\varepsilon]$), and $Z_t$ is the "remaining part" of $X_t$ (the existence of such decomposition follows from the Lévy–Itô theorem — see Theorem 19.2 in Sato's book on Lévy processes). Then $$t^{-1} \mathbb{E} |f(Y_t)| \to \int f(x) \nu(dx)$$ as $t \to 0^+$, as can be easily proved by conditioning on the number of jumps (only the term with a single jump has positive contribution). Furthermore, $$t^{-1} \mathbb{E} |f(X_t) - f(Y_t)| \leqslant t^{-1} \mathbb{P}[|Y_t| < \varepsilon] \mathbb{P}[|Z_t| > \varepsilon] + t^{-1} \mathbb{P}[|Y_t| \geqslant \varepsilon] \|f'\|_\infty \mathbb{E} |Z_t|$$ and both terms can be verified to converge to zero as $t \to 0^+$.

  2. Use an appropriate variant of Plancherel's theorem: if $\psi = -\ln \varphi_\mu$ is the characteristic (Lévy—Khintchine) exponent, then $$t^{-1} \mathbb{E} f(X_t) = t^{-1} \mathbb{E} (f(X_t) - f(0)) = \int \hat{f}(z) t^{-1} (e^{-t \psi(z)} - 1) dz \to -\int \hat{f}(z) \psi(z) dz $$ by the dominated convergence theorem. Using the explicit form of $\psi$, the facts that $f'(0) = f''(0) = 0$, and again an appropriate variant of Plancherel's theorem, we can show that $$-\int \hat{f}(z) \psi(z) dz = \int f(x) \nu(dx),$$ as desired.

  3. My favourite one, using semigroup theory. Let $L$ be the generator of the transition semigroup $P_t$ of $X_t$. We have $$t^{-1} \mathbb E f(X_t) = t^{-1} (\mathbb E f(X_t) - f(0)) = t^{-1} (P_t f(0) - f(0)) \to L f(0) $$ as $t \to 0^+$. By the expression for $L$ and the fact that $f(0) = f'(0) = f''(0) = 0$, we have $$L f(0) = \int f(x) \nu(dx).$$

I am pretty much sure one can find the above arguments in the literature, but I do not have a reference off the top of my head.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer. I will check these approaches. But what do you think about the approach I've described in my answer? Does it work and can we will the gaps? $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Nov 1, 2020 at 6:01
  • $\begingroup$ I really like the third approach, since it is very easy to establish the desired result, once we know the form of the generator $L$. However, I need your help to understand some minor things. Let $\mu_t:=\mathcal L(X_t)$ for $t\ge0$. I know that the transition semigroup $(\kappa_t)_{t\ge0}$ of $X$ is given by $\kappa_t(x,B)=\mu_t(B-x)$ for all $(x,B)\in\mathbb R\times\mathcal B(E)$. Moreover, (as this is true for any Markov semigroup), $(\kappa_t)_{t\ge0}$ is contractive on any closed subspace $C$ of the space of bounded Borel measurable functions equipped with the supremum norm. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Nov 1, 2020 at 15:22
  • $\begingroup$ Let $L$ denote the $C$-generator of $(\kappa_t)_{t\ge0}$. Note that for all $f\in\mathcal D(L)$ it holds $$\lim_{t\to0+}\frac{\kappa_tf-f}t=\kappa_0Af=Af$$ and since the convergence is wrt the supremum norm, it particularly holds $$\lim_{t\to0+}\frac{(\kappa_tf)(0)-f(0)}t=(Af)(0).$$ So, you don't need to consider the integral and argue with the dominated convergence theorem, unless I'm missing something. Now, the question is how we need to choose $C$. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Nov 1, 2020 at 15:22
  • $\begingroup$ My guess is that we can show that $(\kappa_t)_{t\ge0}$ is strongly continuous on the space $U_b(\mathbb R)$ of uniformly continuous functions on $\mathbb R$ and with that choice for $C$ it holds $$(Af)(x)=af''(x)+bf'(x)+cf(x)+\int f(y)-f(x)-1_{B_1(x)}(y-x)f'(x)\:\nu({\rm d}y)$$ for all $f\in U_b(\mathbb R)\cap C^2_b(\mathbb R)$ (maybe derivatives need to be uniformly continuous as well) for some $a,b,c\in\mathbb R$. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Nov 1, 2020 at 15:23
  • $\begingroup$ (a) Is this correct? (b) Am I missing something or is strong continuity of the semigroup not needed. (b) Everything should generalizes to arbitrary Hilbert spaces, but do you have a reference for the form of $L$ for the one-dimensional case considered here? (c) In any case, I'd still be interested on how we can fill the gaps in the approach described in my answer and would highly appreciate if you could comment on that as well. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Nov 1, 2020 at 15:23
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Partial answer

Let

  • $(b,\sigma)\in\mathbb R\times[0,\infty)$;
  • $\nu$ be a $\sigma$-finite measure on $\mathbb R$ with $$\int1\wedge x^2\:\nu({\rm d}x)<\infty\tag a$$ and $\nu(\{0\})=0$;
  • $\mu$ be a probability measure on $\mathbb R$ with $$\ln\varphi_\mu(t)={\rm i}tb-\frac{\sigma^2}2t^2+\int e^{{\rm i}tx}-1-1_{(-1,\:1)}(x){\rm i}tx\:\nu({\rm d}x)\tag b$$ for all $t\in\mathbb R$.

We can construct a real-valued random variable $Y$ on a probability space $(\Omega,\mathcal A,\operatorname P)$ with $Y\sim\mu$ in the following way:

  • Let $$I_k:=\left(-\frac1k,-\frac1{k+1}\right]\cup\left[\frac1k,\frac1{k+1}\right)$$ and $$\nu_k(B):=\nu(B\cap I_k)\;\;\;\text{for }B\in\mathcal B(\mathbb R)$$ for $k\in\mathbb N$
  • Note that $$\nu(I_0)+\int_{(-1,\:1)}\nu({\rm d}x)=\int1\wedge x^2\:\nu({\rm d}x)<\infty\tag c.$$
  • Let $(X_k)_{k\in\mathbb N_0}$ be a real-valued independent process on $(\Omega,\mathcal A,\operatorname P)$ with$^1$ $$X_k\sim\operatorname{CPoi}_{\nu_k}\;\;\;\text{for all }k\in\mathbb N_0\tag d.$$
  • Note that $$\operatorname E[X_k]=\int_{I_k}\nu({\rm d}x)x\tag e$$ and $$\operatorname{Var}[X_k]=\int_{I_k}\nu({\rm d}x)x^2\tag f$$ for all $k\in\mathbb N_0$.
  • It's easy to see that $$M_k:=\sum_{i=1}^k\left(X_i-\operatorname E\left[X_i\right]\right)\;\;\;\text{for }k\in\mathbb N$$ is a martingale with $$\operatorname E\left[M_k^2\right]=\sum_{i=1}^k\operatorname{Var}[X_i]\tag g\;\;\;\text{for all }n\in\mathbb N$$
  • Let $\mathcal F^X_\infty:=\sigma(X_k:k\in\mathbb N)$.
  • Then, $$\sup_{k\in\mathbb N}\operatorname E\left[M_k^2\right]=\int_{(-1,\:1)}\nu({\rm d}x)x^2<\infty\tag h$$ and hence $$M_k\xrightarrow{k\to\infty}M_\infty\;\;\;\text{almost surely}\tag i$$ for some real-valued $\mathcal F^X_\infty$-measurable square-integrable random variable $M_\infty$ on $(\Omega,\mathcal A,\operatorname P)$ by the martingale convergence theorem.
  • Now let $Z$ be a real-valued standard normally distributed random variable on $(\Omega,\mathcal A,\operatorname P)$ independent of $(X_n)_{n\in\mathbb N_0}$
  • It's easy to show that $$Y:=b+\sigma Z+X_0+M_\infty\sim \mu.$$

Now we know that there characteristic exponent of $\mu^{\ast1/n}$ is similarly given by $$\ln\varphi_{\mu^{\ast1/n}}(t)={\rm i}tb^{(n)}-\frac{\left|\sigma^{(n)}\right|^2}2t^2+\int e^{{\rm i}tx}-1-1_{(-1,\:1)}(x){\rm i}tx\:\nu^{(n)}({\rm d}x)\tag j,$$ where $b^{(n)}:=b/n$, $\sigma^{(n)}:=\sigma/\sqrt n$ and $\nu^{(n)}:=\nu/n$, for all $n\in\mathbb N$. Define $\left(\nu^{(n)}_k,X^{(n)}_k,M^{(n)}_k,M^{(n)}_\infty,Y^{(n)}\right)$ in the same way as before, but with $(b,\sigma,\nu)$ replaced by $\left(b^{(n)},\sigma^{(n)},\nu^{(n)}\right)$.

We then should be able to show that for all $\varepsilon_1,\varepsilon_2>0$, there are $k_0,n_0\in\mathbb N$ with $$p_{k_0}^{(n)}:=\operatorname P\left[\left|b^{(n)}+\sigma^{(n)}Z-\sum_{k=1}^{k_0}\operatorname E\left[X^{(n)}_k\right]\right|+\sum_{k>k_0}\left(X_k^{(n)}-\operatorname E\left[X_k^{(n)}\right]\right)>\varepsilon_1\right]\le\frac{\varepsilon_2}n\tag k$$ for all $n\ge n_0$.

Now let $$W^{(n)}:=\sum_{k=0}^{k_0}X_k^{(n)}\;\;\;\text{for }n\in\mathbb N.$$

In order to conclude that $n\mu^{\ast1/n}\to\nu$ vaguely, it is sufficient to show that $$n\operatorname P\left[Y^{(n)}\in(a,b]\right]\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}\nu((a,b])\tag l$$ for all $a,b\in\mathbb R$ with $a<b$ and $\nu(\{a\})=\nu(\{b\})=0$.

Using the simple estimate $\operatorname P\left[U\in(a+\varepsilon_1,b-\varepsilon_1]\right]-\operatorname P[|V|>\varepsilon_1]\le\operatorname P[U+V\in(a,b]]\le\operatorname P[U\in(a-\varepsilon_1,b+\varepsilon_1]]+\operatorname P[|V|>\varepsilon_1]$, for every random variables $U,V$, we obtain \begin{equation}\begin{split}&\operatorname P\left[W^{(n)}\in(a+\varepsilon_1,b-\varepsilon_1]\right]-p_{k_0}^{(n)}\\&\;\;\;\;\le\operatorname P[Y^{(n)}\in(a,b]]\\&\;\;\;\;\le\operatorname P[W^{(n)}\in(a-\varepsilon_1,b+\varepsilon_1]]+p_{k_0}^{(n)}\end{split}\tag m\end{equation} for all $n\ge n_0$. On the other hand, letting $J_{k_0}:=\bigcup_{k=0}^{k_0}I_k$, $$n\operatorname P\left[W^{(n)}\in B\right]=\nu(B\cap J_{k_0})\xrightarrow{k_0\to\infty}\nu(B)\;\;\;\text{for all }B\in\mathcal B(\mathbb R)\tag n.$$ So, unless I'm missing something, we should be able to conclude as long as we can justify that we can take $k_0$ as large as desired, while maintaining $(k)$.

I would highly appreciated if someone could fill this gap.


$^1$ One issue, which I'm unable to resolve at the moment, is that $\operatorname{CPoi}_{\eta}$ is only well-defined, when $\eta$ is a finite measure on $\mathbb R$, but (unless I'm missing something) the assumptions don't imply that $\nu_k$ is finite for all $k\in\mathbb N_0$. Since $\nu$ is arising from the Lévy-Khinchin formula, we may be able (I don't know whether this is true) to assume that $\nu$ is locally finite. Under this assumption, $\nu_k$ would be finite for all $k\ne0$ (since the support of $\nu_k$ is contained in $(-1,1)$ for $k\ne0$).

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  • $\begingroup$ Some minor comments: 1. The integrand $x^2$ is missing under the integral in (c). 2. No need to invoke martingales, Kolmogorov's three-series theorem is enough. 3. Formula (j) in fact defines $\mu^{*s}$ for an arbitrary real $s > 0$ if $1/n$ is replaced by $s$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 31, 2020 at 23:35

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