EDIT: The question was originally about general Noetherian rings instead of PID's. Thanks to YCor for pointing out how wrong this was in the comments below (1 2 3).
Question 1: Let $R$ be a PID. Suppose that some finitely-generated $R$-module $M$ contains a nonzero $\mathbb Z$-divisible element. Then does $R$ contain a nonzero $\mathbb Z$-divisible element?
Here I say that $x$ is $\mathbb Z$-divisible if, for every $0 \neq n \in \mathbb Z$, there is $y$ such that $ny = x$. Since this is the only kind of "divisibility" I'm interested in, I'll say "divisible" instead of "$\mathbb Z$-divisible" from now on.
My expectation is that the answer is "yes" -- my feeling is that in order to produce a divisible element of some module, some sort of localization must be performed, which is a sort of infinitary construction.
A relevant observation is that in a Noetherian module $M$, if $x \in M$ is divisible, then the submodule $xM \subseteq M$ generated by $x$ is a divisible submodule (i.e. all of the elements of $xM$ are divisible in $xM$). It follows that the following is an equivalent formulation of the question:
Question 2: Let $R$ be a PID. Suppose that some quotient ring $R/I$ contains a nonzero divisible element. Then does $R$ contain a nonzero divisible element?
Note that if $R$ is a ring and some quotient ring $R/I$ contains a nonzero divisible element, then we may assume that $R/I$ is a field of characteristic 0. So an equivalent form of Question 2 would be: if $R$ is a PID surjecting onto a field of characteristic 0, then must $R$ contain a divisible element?
Restricting Question 2 to the case where $R$ is $p$-local for some prime $p \in \mathbb Z$, there is also the following formulation:
Question 3: Let $R$ be a $p$-local PID. If $p$ does not lie in the Jacobson radical of $R$, then must $R$ contain a nonzero divisible element?