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Denote by $L^1(0,1)$ the space of Lebesgue integrable functions on the interval $(0,1)$.

$\textbf{Question:}$ Does there exist a function $F:(0,1)\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ such that:

  1. $\frac{F(x)}{x}\in L^1(0,1)$,
  2. $\frac{F'(x)}{x}\in L^1(0,1)$,
  3. $\frac{F(x)}{x^2}\notin L^1(0,1)$?

I'm guessing that the answer is positive and the point is to construct $F$ such that $F$ and $F'$ behave suitably near zero. It seems quite delicate. I checked that $F$ cannot be a polynomial or a power function (since then $F'\simeq \frac{F}x$, thus conditions 2 and 3 cannot hold simultaneously).

I would appreciate any hints!

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  • $\begingroup$ Not if $F$ is nonnegative and increasing near $0$: Condition 1 implies $F(0) = 0$, hence by the mean value theorem $F(x) \le x F'(\xi) \le x F'(x_0)$ for some $\xi \in (0, x_0)$ and small $x_0 > 0$. My intuition tells me that then it should not be possible in general (for instance, multiplying with something like $\sin(1/x)$ worsens the problem). $\endgroup$
    – Keba
    Commented Aug 15, 2020 at 20:31

1 Answer 1

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There is no such function. First of all, $|F(a)-F(b)|\leqslant \int_a^b |F'(x)|dx\to 0$ when $a,b\to 0$. So $F$ has a limit $c$ at point 0. If $c\ne 0$, then 1) fails. So $\lim_{x\to 0} F(x)=0$.

Next, $$|F(a)|\leqslant \int_{0}^a|F'(x)|dx\leqslant a\int_{0}^a\frac{|F'(x)|}x dx=o(a),\quad\text{when}\quad a\to 0.\quad (1)$$ Now $$ \int_a^b \frac{F(x)}{x^2}dx=\frac{F(a)}a-\frac{F(b)}b+\int_a^b \frac{F'(x)}xdx. \quad(2) $$ Consider two cases:

  1. $F$ has fixed sign near 0. Then choosing $a,b$ close to 0 we conclude from (1) and (2) that $\int \frac{F(x)}{x^2}dx$ converges at 0, but this is equivalent to the convergence of $\int \frac{|F(x)|}{x^2}dx$ which we need.

  2. $F$ has infinitely many zeroes in any neighborhood of 0. Then choosing $(a_k,b_k)$ being inclusion-maximal intervals of the open set $\{x:F(x)\ne 0\}$ and applying (2) for $a=a_k,b=b_k$ we bound $\int_0^c \frac{|F(x)|}{x^2}dx$ via $\int_0^c \frac{|F'(x)|}{x}dx$. Here $c=b_1$, for example.

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  • $\begingroup$ Cool, thanks! :] $\endgroup$
    – Tony419
    Commented Aug 15, 2020 at 23:03
  • $\begingroup$ You’re proving that the answer to the stated question (does there exist $F$ such that $F(x)/x \in L^1$, $F’(x)/x \in L^1$, $F(x)/x^2 \notin L^1$) is “no”, right? $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Aug 15, 2020 at 23:13
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice yes, now added $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 15, 2020 at 23:33
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    $\begingroup$ A similar argument: once $F(0)=0$ has been proved, then $F(x)=\int_0^x F'(t)dt$ and $$\int_0^1 \frac{|F(x)|}{x^2}dx\le \int_0^1 \frac{1}{x^2} dx\int_0^x |F'(t)|dt=\int_0^1 |F'(t)|dt \int_t^1 x^{-2}dx=\int_0^1 |F'(t)|\frac{1-t}{t}dt$$. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 16, 2020 at 7:45

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