One of the way a person shows their wealth is by having many diamonds. The same can be said about models of $\sf ZFC$. We can add generic diamond sequences, while preserving the old ones, so in some sense, some models have more diamonds than others. And some have none at all.
Recall that a diamond sequence is a sequence $\langle A_\alpha\subseteq\alpha\mid\alpha<\omega_1\rangle$ such that $A_\alpha\subseteq\alpha$, and for any $A\subseteq\omega_1$, $\{\alpha\mid A\cap\alpha=A_\alpha\}$ is stationary.
Very very clearly, we can replace any one particular $A_\alpha$, in fact any countably many of them, and in fact any non-stationary set of them, and the sequence is still a diamond sequence. By that trivial observation alone, if there is one diamond sequence, there are $2^{\aleph_1}$ of them.
So the "plain counting argument" is the wrong one. But we can talk about equivalence up to a non-stationary set. That is, two sequence are equivalent, if they differ on a non-stationary set.
Okay, but maybe you can find a permutation of $\omega_1$ which maps stationary sets to stationary sets. And maybe that permutation is not the identity (mod. non-stationary, that is), so maybe that gives you a new sequence, where in fact you just moved that diamond from an earring to a necklace.
So it is unclear to me that agreeing on a club is the right notion here. But maybe it is.
Questions:
- Is there a better notion of making diamond sequences distinct?
- How wealthy are canonical inner models? In particular does $L$ have only one diamond sequence (up to a reasonable notion of equivalence)?
The reason to ask is that normally we argue that a canonical inner model has a diamond sequence by constructing said sequence from some fine structural properties of the model. But that gives us a very concrete sequence, which may hint at the relative poverty in which canonical inner models live.