Let $F:\mathscr{C}\rightarrow \mathscr{D}$ be a 3-functor between 3-categories. Are the following two properties known to be equivalent?
$F$ is a 3-equivalence, meaning that there is a 3-functor $G:\mathscr{D\rightarrow\mathscr{C}}$ and natural equivalences $GF\Rightarrow Id$, $Id\Rightarrow FG$.
$F$ is essentially surjective, and for every object $A,B$ of $\mathscr{C}$, $F$ induces a 2-equivalences of 2-categories $\mathscr{C}(A,B)\rightarrow \mathscr{D}(F(A),F(B))$.
Let me add that 1. might not be exactly the statement one wants. More precisely, maybe we need to specify the inverses of the natural equivalence?