In Mumford's red book the statement of the Going-Down Theorem (Chapter II Section 8) is as follows. Let $f: X \to Y$ be a finite morphism. Assume that $Y$ is an irreducible normal scheme. Assume that for all $x \in X$, no non-zero element of $O_{Y, f(x)}$ is a $0$-divisor in $O_{X,x}^{*}$. Then for every pair of points $x_1 \in X$, $y_0 \in Y$ such that $f(x_1) \in \overline{\{ y_0 \}}$, there is a point $x_0 \in f^{-1}(y_0)$ such that $x_1 \in \overline{ \{ x_0 \} }$.
By "no non-zero element of $O_{Y, f(x)}$ is a $0$-divisor in $O_{X,x}^{*}$", does this mean that it is ok if a non-zero element of $O_{Y, f(x)}$ gets mapped to $0$ in $O_{X,x}$? or does it mean every non-zero element of $O_{Y, f(x)}$ gets mapped to a non-zero element which is not a $0$-divisor in $O_{X,x}^*$? Thank you.
PS Instead of editing this question, I decided to ask separately On an application of the going-down theorem of Cohen-Seidenberg in Mumford, which was the reason why I was trying to understand the statement in the first place.