I learnt that $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$ is rigid, but can be deformed to a non-rigid Hirzebruch surface $S$. Suppose $\pi: M \to B$ is such deformation such that $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1 \cong M_{t_0}$ and $S \cong M_{t_1}$.
I want to understand the meaning of "rigidity". Does this mean that: (1) there exists an open set $t_0 \in U \subseteq B$, such that for all $t\in U$, $M_t \cong \mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$? (Or maybe more strongly, $M_U \cong U \times (\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1)$?); or (2) only the first order deformation of $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$ is trivial (because $H^1(\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1, \Theta)$ = 0), and it could well happen that no matter how $t \in B$ closes to $t_0$, $M_t$ may not isomorphism to $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$?
If (1) is the meaning of "rigidity", then I feel it is strange that for some $t$, $M_t$ "suddenly" becomes NOT the same as $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$. Moreover, I think the construction of aforementioned deformation is by considering extension of vector bundles $V, W$, and ${\rm Ext}^1(W,V)$ is the base $B$. So for $t \neq t_0$, the extension will never be trivial, and hence the corresponding variety should not be the same as $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$.
If (2) is the meaning of "rigidity", and suppose $\mathfrak{M} \to \mathfrak{B}$ is the Kuranishi family of $\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1$. Then I guess $T_{\mathfrak B, t_0} \cong H^1(\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1, \Theta) = 0$. But according to the previous discussion, $\mathfrak B$ is not of dimensional $0$. Hence $t_0$ must be singular at $\mathfrak B$. (By the way, is there a way to compute the dimension of Kuranishi space?)
My knowedge of deformation theory is floppy. Any comment/reference is very well appreciated!