-1
$\begingroup$

Given a full rank $n \times m$ matrix $K$ with $m<n$ and an invertible symmetric matrix $J$. Let $A$ be a symmetric positive semi-definite $n \times n$ matrix such that \begin{equation} (K^T K)^{-1}K^TAK(K^TK)^{-1}-(K^TJK)^{-1} \end{equation} is positive semi-definite. I'd like to prove that \begin{equation} A-K(K^TJK)^{-1}K^T \end{equation} is also positive semi-definite.

This is my investigation: \begin{align*} (K^T K)^{-1}K^TAK(K^TK)^{-1}\geq(K^TJK)^{-1}\iff K^TAK\geq K^T K(K^TJK)^{-1}K^T K \end{align*} by multiplying RHS by $K^T K$ from left and right. But, I am not sure if we can multiply bu such matrices and I don't know what I do then. Could anyone help me? Thanks in advance.

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Well you can get from \begin{equation} (K^T K)^{-1}K^TAK(K^TK)^{-1}-(K^TJK)^{-1} \end{equation} to \begin{equation} A-K(K^TJK)^{-1}K^T \end{equation} by left-multiplying by $K=(K^T)^{-1}K^T K$ and right-multiplying by $K^T = K^T K K^{-1}$. So all you need to do is show that doing this will preserve positivity. This follows because a symmetric positive semidefinite matrix can always be decomposed as $M=B B^T$ (for the real case that I assume you're dealing with here, given that we have transposes rather than hermitian conjugates), and conversely any matrix with such a decomposition is positive. So for positive semidefinite $M$: \begin{equation} K M K^T = K (B B^T)K^T \geq 0. \end{equation}

See, for example, http://www.math.ucsd.edu/~njw/Teaching/Math271C/Lecture_03.pdf

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks @JMAA, but what it $(K^T)^{-1}$ and $K^{-1}$? Because $K$ is not invertible and even not sequare $\endgroup$
    – Jlamprong
    Commented Jan 29, 2014 at 12:46
  • $\begingroup$ @Jlamprong Since $K$ is full rank and has $m\leq n$ then it has a left inverse, as explained here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/108612/…. Since $K^T$ is also of full rank, but with rows and columns swapped it has a right inverse. I realise that these are the wrong inverses, we want the left inverse of $K^T$ and the right inverse of $K$. Are you sure you didn't mean $m>n$? $\endgroup$
    – JMAA
    Commented Jan 29, 2014 at 12:56
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, but $m\leq n$ so $K$ doesn't have right inverse $\endgroup$
    – Jlamprong
    Commented Jan 29, 2014 at 20:32
  • $\begingroup$ @Jlamprong This is not a place to get your homework done for you, rather research-level mathematics, I just thought I'd help you out. You might also have typed $n\times m$ the wrong way around, or there could be a typo in whereever you got this problem from. Please be willing to put in some work yourself and in future take basic queries that aren't research-level to math.stackexchange.org instead. $\endgroup$
    – JMAA
    Commented Jan 29, 2014 at 20:34

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .