Can $f(n)$ take any values except $0$ and $1$ for $n>1$?
Yes, $2^5 - 3^3 = 5 = 2^3 - 3^1$, but this is very exceptional!
Is it possible that $f(n)=\infty$?
No. Indeed, $f(n)$ is $0$ or $1$ for $n\gt 13$ (and for the remaining ones all solutions are also known and I think there are never more than two, but deifinitely only very small, see link below). This was proved by Stroeker and Tijdeman (1982) however that it is only $0,1$ for large $c$ is a lot older (Herschfeld in the thirties).
Are there arbitrary long runs of $0$'s and $1$'s in the sequence?
For $0$ yes, for $1$ I am not sure at the moment but I doubt it (and it might be known, perhaps there is even a direct argument).
What is the asymptotic density of $0$'s in the sequence?
The density is $1$. This follows from the fact that the number of solutions $(x,y)$ of the diophantine inequality
$$ 0 \lt 2^x - 3^y \le c$$ is asymptotically $(\log c )^2/ (2 \log 2 \log 3)$.
So below $c$ the function $f$ can be (and is, due to above mentioned result) positive only about $(\log c)^2$ times. (This is a special case of a result by Pillai.)
For further details the start of the paper of Waldschmidt "Perfect powers: Pillai's works and their devellopment" is a good starting point. Also you might look at http://oeis.org/A219551 which gives (something equivalent to) the exact values of $f(n)$ and some references (but note this is slightly different as absolute values are considered).