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Let $V$ be an $n$-dimensional simplex, let $f(\boldsymbol{x}) = f(x_1,\cdots,x_n)\in \mathbb{C}[x_1,\cdots,x_n]$ be a product of linear polynomials that is non-zero in interior of $V$. Also let $E(\boldsymbol{x})$ be an entire function.

Consider the integral $$I_{f,E}(s) = \int_V (f(\boldsymbol{x}))^s E(\boldsymbol{x}) dx_i$$ which is analytic on (at least) $\Re(s)\geq 0$.

Is it true that $I_{f,E}(s)$ admits a meromorphic continuation to $s\in \mathbb{C}$, and order of poles at negative integer $s$ is $\leq n$?


If $f$ is non-zero on whole $V$ (not only its interior), then the defining integral $I_{f,E}(s)$ converges for all $s\in \mathbb{C}$, and is an entire function. The claim is trivial in this case.

So more interesting case is when $f$ vanishes somewhere on boundary of $V$, for example, consider $$F_1(s) = \int_0^1 x^s E(x) dx$$ $$F_2(s) = \int_{0<x_1<x_2<x_3<1} [x_1 x_2 (x_1+x_2)(1-x_1-x_3)(x_1+x_2+x_3)]^s E(x_1,x_2,x_3) dx_i$$

the claim implies they have meromorphic continuation to $\mathbb{C}$, poles of $F_1$ at negative integer is (at most) simple, and for $F_2$, (at most) order $3$.

For $F_1(s)$, one could prove this using a special trick $$F_1(s) = (1-e^{2\pi i s})^{-1}\int_C x^s E(x)dx$$ with $C$ being contour enter image description here.

Since $C$ doesn't pass through $0$, $\int_C x^s E(x)dx$ is entire in $s$, and $(1-e^{2\pi i s})^{-1}$ has simple pole at $s\in \mathbb{Z}$, so the statement is true for $F_1$.

One could perform ad hoc trick on $F_2$ to show claim is also true. However, I wonder if a more conceptual and uniform approach exists.

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    $\begingroup$ doesn't it by any chance follow from the general theory (of Gelfand-Atiyah-Berstein-...) of the analytic continuation of complex powers? www-users.cse.umn.edu/~garrett/m/fun/bernstein.pdf Also, since your polynomial is nonzero in the domain, its complex power has perfect sense for all complex numbers. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 16 at 13:40
  • $\begingroup$ @DmitriiKorshunov Thank you very much for the very useful reference. It seems analytic continuation can be indeed proved like this. $\endgroup$
    – pisco
    Commented Oct 16 at 18:34

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