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I've read in a paper

that the following integral: $$ I^i(\textbf{a},\textbf{b})=\int_{\textbf{w}\in\mathbb{R}^3}\frac{w^i}{\|\textbf{w}\|^3\|\textbf{w}-\textbf{a}\|\|\textbf{w}-\textbf{b}\|} $$ ...where $\textbf{w}, \textbf{a}, \textbf{b}\in\mathbb{R}^3$ are vectors, $w^i$, $a^i$, $b^i$ denote the $i^{th}$ component of $\textbf{w}$, $\textbf{a}$ and $\textbf{b}$ respectively, and $\|\|$ is the Euclidean norm, can be simplified by using Feynman Parameters $s$ and $t$ and integrating over $\textbf{w}$ to get the result: $$I^i(\textbf{a},\textbf{b})=2\int_0^1ds\int_0^1dt\sqrt{\frac{t}{s(1-s)}}\frac{sa^i+(1-s)b^i}{\{ s(1-s)\|\textbf{a}-\textbf{b}\|^2 + t\| s\textbf{a}+(1-s)\textbf{b} \|^2 \}}$$

I have two questions on this result:

  1. Because I'm not 100% versed in these techniques, can someone show me the exact steps to get between the first equation above to the second equation?
  2. With these techniques, is there ever a concern about convergence of the integral? I ask this because the above integral comes up in Bott-Taubes integration, and there is a lot of work done with respect to compactifying integration domains to make sure integrals are finite. Does the Feynman parametrization technique implicitly address these issues?

(Because question 2. is a bit open-ended, I will happily accept an answer that addresses 1.)

Thanks in advance!

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    $\begingroup$ Wikipedia has a pretty detailed exposition, is this what you need? en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feynman_parametrization $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 29 at 10:43
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you @CarloBeenakker - I will read up on these techniques and try to connect the two equalities myself, in the meantime I'll keep it open in case someone can get to it faster than me :) $\endgroup$
    – guest
    Commented Sep 29 at 23:29
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    $\begingroup$ I worked it out, took me much longer than expected, and the result is a bit different, presumably equivalent. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 30 at 12:18

1 Answer 1

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I use the Feynman parameterisation formula in the general form (valid for $ \text{Re} \, \alpha_{j} > 0 $ for all $j$):

$$\frac{1}{A_{1}^{\alpha_{1}}\cdots A_{n}^{\alpha_{n}}} = \frac{\Gamma(\alpha_{1}+\dots+\alpha_{n})}{\Gamma(\alpha_{1})\cdots\Gamma(\alpha_{n})}\int_{0}^{1}du_{1}\cdots\int_{0}^{1}du_{n}\frac{\delta(1-\sum_{k=1}^{n}u_{k})\;u_{1}^{\alpha_{1}-1}\cdots u_{n}^{\alpha_{n}-1}}{\left(\sum_{k=1}^{n}u_{k}A_{k}\right)^{\sum_{k=1}^{n}\alpha_{k}}} $$ In our case we take $n=3$, $\alpha_1=3/2$, $\alpha_2=\alpha_3=1/2$ to find $$F(w)=\frac{w_i}{\| w\|^3\|w-a\|\|w-b\|}=\frac{3w_i}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{1}du_{1}\int_{0}^{1}du_{2}\int_{0}^{1}du_{3}\frac{\delta(1-u_1-u_2-u_3)\;u_{1}^{1/2}u_{2}^{-1/2}u_{3}^{-1/2}}{\left(u_1\|w\|^2+u_2\|w-a\|^2+u_3\|w-b\|^2\right)^{5/2}}.$$ The integral of $F(w)$ over the 3-dimensional vector $w$ can be evaluated by first rewriting $$u_1\|w\|^2+u_2\|w-a\|^2+u_3\|w-b\|^2=(u_1+u_2+u_3)\bigl(\|w-v\|^2+d\bigr),$$ $$v=\frac{u_2 a+u_3b}{u_1+u_2+u_3},\;\;d=\frac{a^2 u_1 u_2+a^2 u_2 u_3-2 a b u_2 u_3+b^2 u_1 u_3+b^2 u_2 u_3}{(u_1+u_2+u_3)^2}.$$ The integral over $w$ then follows from the formula $$\int d^3 w \frac{w_i}{(\|w-v\|^2+d)^{5/2}}=\frac{4\pi v_i}{3d}.$$ So we arrive at $$\int d^3 w \,F(w)=2\int_{0}^{1}du_{1}\int_{0}^{1}du_{2}\int_{0}^{1}du_{3}\frac{(u_2 a_i+u_3 b_i)\delta(1-u_1-u_2-u_3)\;u_{1}^{1/2}u_{2}^{-1/2}u_{3}^{-1/2}}{a^2 u_1 u_2+a^2 u_2 u_3-2 a b u_2 u_3+b^2 u_1 u_3+b^2 u_2 u_3}$$ $$\qquad=2\int_{0}^{1}du_{2}\int_{0}^{1}du_{3}\frac{(u_2 a_i+u_3 b_i)(1-u_2-u_3)^{1/2}u_{2}^{-1/2}u_{3}^{-1/2}}{\|a\|^2 u_2(1-u_2)+\|b\|^2 u_3(1-u_3)-2(a\cdot b)u_2u_3}.$$

The parameterization quoted by the OP is a bit different, not symmetric in $a$ and $b$, I presume it is equivalent.

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    $\begingroup$ The parametrization in the OP is also clearly symmetric in $a$ and $b$, one just has to couple the exchange of $a$ and $b$ with $s\rightarrow 1-s$. Whereas in your result, it's coupled with exchanging two variables, $u_2 $ and $u_3 $. In that sense, the structure is quite different. Interesting that one can use Feynman's trick to go into diverging directions here. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 30 at 13:22
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you! Exactly what I was looking for, and I've accepted the answer, I really appreciate the time spent on it. Removing the w dependence (associated to the so-called "off-knot" points), helps a lot with numerical applications, and one can go further and integrate over u_2 and u_3. ...in a few days i'll follow-up and add more to the original post, just to show the additional steps of integrating over the remaining Feynman parameters given this answer...which I understand is possible also from the linked paper (but the steps are easier :) ) $\endgroup$
    – guest
    Commented Oct 1 at 2:14
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    $\begingroup$ Carlo, I found that you can get to the equation in the OP from your final expression if you make the change of variables: $u_1=t$, $u_2=s\cdot(1-t)$, and $u_3=(1-s)\cdot(1-t)$. This has the added benefit that the integration over the simplex spanned by $u_2$, $u_3$ is now transformed into an integration over $[0,1]\times[0,1]$ $\endgroup$
    – guest
    Commented 23 hours ago

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