Let $X$ be a discrete random variable supported on $\{−5,\dots, 6\}$ in which the outcomes have the following respective probabilities: $$\begin{array}{rc} n & p(n) \\ \hline −5 & 6/36 \\ −4 & 0 \\ −3 & 0 \\ −2 & 6/36 \\ −1 & 5/36 \\ 0 & 5/36 \\ 1 & 2/36 \\ 2 & 2/36 \\ 3 & 3/36 \\ 4 & 4/36 \\ 5 & 2/36 \\ 6 & 1/36 \end{array}$$ and let the random variable $S_n$ be the sum of $n$ IID copies of $X$. Since $X$ has expected value 0, so does $S_n$. Let $p_n$ be ${\rm Prob}[S_n > 0]$ and $q_n$ be ${\rm Prob}[S_n < 0]$, so that for instance $p_1 =14/36$ and $q_1 = 17/36 > p_1$. Is it true that $q_n > p_n$ for all $n$ besides $n=4$? (It is not hard to show that $p_4 > q_4$, and it has been checked that $q_n > p_n$ for all other $n$ up to 100.)
More broadly, one can ask what kinds of behavior the sign of $p_n-q_n$ can exhibit if we replace $X$ by an arbitrary finitely-supported integer-valued mean-zero random variable. Must the sign be eventually constant (as it appears to be in my specific example), or can it exhibit more complicated forms of behavior?