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Let $\pi_1$ be the fundamental group of a closed aspherical manifold of dimension $n$. In particular, $\pi_1$ is finitely presented, torsion-free and its cohomology is finitely generated and satisfies Poincaré duality.

Now, we take the center $\mathcal{Z}\pi_1$ (which I assume is finitely generated) and consider the inner automorphism group $Inn(\pi_1)=\pi_1/\mathcal{Z}\pi_1$. I would like prove that $Inn(\pi_1)$ always have an element of infinite order unless $\pi_1\cong\mathbb{Z}^n$.

By a theorem of Schur, if $Inn(\pi_1)$ is finite then $[\pi_1,\pi_1]$ is also finite and therefore $[\pi_1,\pi_1]$ is trivial, since $\pi_1$ is torsion-free. In this case $\pi_1$ is abelian and hence $\pi_1\cong \mathbb{Z}^n$ and the manifold is a torus.

So we only need to exclude the case where $Inn(\pi_1)$ is infinite periodic group (all elements are torsion elements).

Note that if $\pi_1$ is centerless then $Inn(\pi_1)\cong\pi_1$ which is torsion-free, so I was looking onto cases where the center is large (for example $\mathbb{Z}^{n-1}$).

I was mainly trying to use some cohomological arguments. For example, $H_2(Inn(\pi_1),\mathbb{Z})$ needs to be finitely generated. In this paper, they prove that $H_2(B(a,b),\mathbb{Z})$ of the free Burnside group with odd $b\geq 665$ has countable rank (in conseqeunce $Inn(\pi_1)\ncong B(a,b)$). A similar argument from this paper, can be used to show that $Inn(\pi_1)$ cannot be an infinite 2-group of bounded exponent.

Finally, $Inn(\pi_1)$ is finitely presented, but it seems that the Burnside problem for finitely presented groups is still open (per this mathoverflow question).

Maybe there is a trivial reason for $Inn(\pi_1)$ to have always elements of infintie order that has slipped out of my mind, but I don't see it rigth now.

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    $\begingroup$ It might be a bit confusing that you ask the question in one direction in the title ("can it be periodic") and the opposite direction in the body (is there an element of infinite order"), so it's unclear what "a positive answer" should be. Anyway I think it's an open question as well in this context. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Sep 20, 2023 at 9:17
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the suggestion. I edited the title accordingly so the positive answer is what I would like to be true, that there always exists an element of infinite order on the inner automorphism group (unless $\pi_1$ is abelian). $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 21, 2023 at 8:47
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    $\begingroup$ I am sure there is no trivial reason and a proof would be hard and require new ideas. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 21, 2023 at 15:19
  • $\begingroup$ Not sure if relevant, but such an example has universal cover Euclidean space. doi.org/10.1016/0040-9383(75)90034-8 Also, there exists aspherical manifolds with non-trivial center and no circle action, disproving a conjecture of Conner-Raymond. doi.org/10.1112/jtopol/jtt023 One could ask a weaker question though: If $Z(\pi_1(M)) \neq 0$, then does $\pi_1(M)/\mathbb{Z}$ look like an $n-1$-dimensional aspherical orbifold group? If so, one might be able to rule out $\mathbb{Z}$ center. $\endgroup$
    – Ian Agol
    Commented Sep 22, 2023 at 18:16
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    $\begingroup$ @IanAgol The motivation of this question comes precisely from the paper of Cappell, Weinberger and Yan you linked. I was trying to prove that if the center of the fundamental group is large (for example, $\mathcal{Z}(\pi_1(M))\cong \mathbb{Z}^{n-1}$ where $n$ is the dimension of $M$) then I have an action of the torus $T^{rank\mathcal{Z}(\pi_1(M))}$ on $M$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 23, 2023 at 7:54

1 Answer 1

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If $G=Inn(\pi_1)$ is a 2-group, then it must be finite (and then you are done by Schur’s argument above).

As you describe, $\pi_1$ is a central extension of $G$ by $\mathbb{Z}^k$ for some $k\leq n$, since you are assuming $Z(\pi_1)$ is finitely generated. We may take the quotient $\pi_1/2\mathbb{Z}^k$ to get a central extension of $G$ by $(\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z})^k$.

For each element $a\in \pi_1$, $Z_a=\langle a, \mathbb{Z}^k\rangle$ is an abelian subgroup of $\pi_1$ isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}^k$. Hence $Z_a/2\mathbb{Z}^k$ is a non-trivial (abelian) central extension of $<a>$ by $(\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z})^k$ with some factor isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}/2|a|\mathbb{Z}$. Modding out by the appropriate subgroup of $Z(\pi_1)\cong \mathbb{Z}^k$, we get a central extension of $G$ by $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ inducing a non-trivial central extension of $<a>$. Hence the map $H^2(G;\mathbb{F}_2)\to H^2(<a>;\mathbb{F}_2)$ is non-trivial.

Now specialize to $a$ an involution. Then we must have $H^1(G;\mathbb{F}_2)\to H^1(<a>;\mathbb{F}_2)\cong \mathbb{F}_2$ non-trivial, since the cohomology ring of $H^*(<a>;\mathbb{F}_2) \cong \mathbb{F}_2[x]$. Hence $<a> \to H_1(G)\cong G/[G,G]$ is non-trivial. If every involution of $G$ injects into $H_1(G)$, then every non-trivial element of $G$ injects into $H_1(G)$ since $G$ is assumed to be a 2-group and hence has a power that is an involution. Hence $G$ injects into $H_1(G)$, so it is finite and abelian since it is finitely generated.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the reply. Your answer gives more evidence that $Inn(\pi_1)$ has always elements of infinite order. The only step in your proof that cannot be generalized to the case of $Inn(\pi_1)$ being a $p$-group is the map to $H^1(<a>,\mathbb{F}_p)$ being non-trivial where $a$ has order $p$, because of the ring structure of $H^1(<a>,\mathbb{F}_p)$, right? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 26, 2023 at 16:50
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    $\begingroup$ @user513804: yes, I think that’s right. At first I thought I could answer the question in general, until I looked up the cohomology of infinite lens spaces and realized it’s not generated in dim 1 for odd order. Still the restriction of H^2 to cyclic subgroups should be surjective which might be useful. $\endgroup$
    – Ian Agol
    Commented Sep 26, 2023 at 18:26

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