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I don't know if there is a standard term for this, but by "negative trichotomy" I mean Β¬ (Β¬ 𝐴 < 𝐡 ∧ Β¬ 𝐴 = 𝐡 ∧ Β¬ 𝐡 < 𝐴). This holds for constructive real numbers as an easy consequence of 𝐴 ≀ 𝐡 ↔ Β¬ 𝐡 < 𝐴 and 𝐴 = 𝐡 ↔ (𝐴 ≀ 𝐡 ∧ 𝐡 ≀ 𝐴) but the ordinal analogue to the former is 𝐴 βŠ† 𝐡 ↔ Β¬ 𝐡 ∈ 𝐴 and I only am aware of a proof of that for the special case of the natural numbers.

One possible literature reference is https://www.cs.bham.ac.uk/~mhe/TypeTopology/Ordinals.Notions.html#is-decidable-order but I don't read agda in general, or TypeTopology in particular, well enough to know whether that is relevant or not.

At the risk of stating the obvious, ¬ (¬ 𝐴 < 𝐡 ∧ ¬ 𝐴 = 𝐡 ∧ ¬ 𝐡 < 𝐴) is equivalent to ¬ ¬ ( 𝐴 < 𝐡 ∨ 𝐴 = 𝐡 ∨ 𝐡 < 𝐴) in intuitionistic logic, so the problem can be stated either way.

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    $\begingroup$ nice question ! $\endgroup$
    – mick
    Commented Aug 13, 2023 at 22:52
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    $\begingroup$ Not sure if it is related, but the strength of the comparability principle for class well orders in second-order set theory (over GBC, for example, with classical logic) is an open question. The issues feel similar. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 13, 2023 at 23:03
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    $\begingroup$ Paul Taylor's Intuitionistic Sets and Ordinals suggests this is not possible. See page 18. There's no derivation of some 'taboo' though. Just a statement that the classical proof of trichotomy cannot be adapted even to a double negated version. $\endgroup$
    – Dan Doel
    Commented Aug 19, 2023 at 6:30
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    $\begingroup$ What is the precise definition of $<$ that you're using? The answer might depend on that. Also, what does the double-negation translation of ZF into IZF get you in this context? Is it $\neg \neg \forall AB \neg\neg(A < B \vee A = B \vee B < A)$? $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 21, 2023 at 15:55
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    $\begingroup$ Strengthening @JamesHanson's question, which definition of ordinals are you using? There are several constructively inequivalent definitions. After thinking about this for 10 minutes, having an answer for any definition would be interesting. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 23, 2023 at 6:56

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I'll assume by ordinal you mean a set with a transitive, well-founded, and extensional relation. Then it's not constructively valid that $\neg \neg (A < B \vee A = B \vee A > B)$ for ordinals $A$, $B$. In fact we don't even have $\neg \neg (A \le B \vee A \ge B)$ for all $A$, $B$. To see this, we construct a presheaf topos with two ordinals $A$, $B$ such that $\neg (A \le B)$ and $\neg (A \ge B)$ both hold. Specifically, we look at presheaves on $\omega^{\mathrm{op}}$, i.e. sequences $X_0 \to X_1 \to \cdots$. From the internal perspective, $A$ and $B$ will be downward closed subsets of $\omega$. Indeed any downward closed subset of an ordinal is again an ordinal. Now take $f, g : \omega \to \omega$ to be two increasing functions such that $f(x) < g(x)$ and $f(x) > g(x)$ each happen for infinitely many $x$. We take $A_n$ to be the set $\{ x \in \omega \mid x < f(n)\}$, and $B_n$ to be the set $\{ x \in \omega \mid x < g(n)\}$. We claim that $\neg(A \le B)$ in the internal language of our topos (the other claim is proved the same way). To this end, we have to show that there is no $n \in \omega$ such that $A \le B$ holds at stage $n$. Indeed, if $A \le B$ held at stage $n$, then we would have $\{x \in \omega \mid x < f(m)\} \subseteq \{x \in \omega \mid x < g(m)\}$ for all $m \ge n$. This contradicts the assumption that $f(x) > g(x)$ for infinitely many $x$.

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    $\begingroup$ Very neat! OP’s link in comments to us.metamath.org/ileuni/ordtriexmid.html confirms he’s using the Powell definition of ordinal as β€œhereditarily transitive set”, which under a mild core of set theory matches what you take here. // A very slight rephrasing perhaps makes the countermodel simpler to follow: OP’s β€œnot-not trichotomy” implies β€œfor any down-closed subsets $X,Y \subseteq \omega$, not-not ($X \subseteq Y$ or $Y \subseteq X$)”; then your model is a counterexample to the latter, with $X, Y$ just as subsets of $\omega$ (so we never need to view them as ordinals in the topos). $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 23, 2023 at 16:30
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David already gave a nice example showing that you do not get negative trichotomy constructively but it turns out that the situation is more drastic than was obvious to me when I originally encountered this question, so I thought I should write another answer. I'm curious about the status of this question relative to more restrictive notions of constructive ordinal, such as Paul's plump ordinals, but I wasn't able to really make any progress on that question.


I'm going to phrase this in terms of constructive set theory (with power sets and full separation), but something analogous holds in any topos or any type theory with an impredicative $\mathtt{Prop}$. I did not come up with this argument, but I also don't remember where I saw it. Hopefully someone will point out a reference.

As you specified in the comments, an ordinal is a transitive set of transitive sets (and, recall, a binary relation $(R,<)$ is isomorphic to an ordinal $(\alpha,\in)$ iff it is transitive, extensional, and well-founded). Let $0 = \varnothing$, $\Omega = \mathcal{P}(\{0\})$, and $x + 1 = x\cup \{x\}$. Let $1 = 0 + 1 = \{0\}$, $2 = 1 + 1 = \{0,1\}$, etc.

Note that $\mathsf{LEM}$ is equivalent to the statement $\Omega = 2$. Also note that $\Omega$ and $\Omega + 1$ are ordinals.

Proposition. If $\neg \mathsf{LEM}$ holds, then $\Omega +1 \neq 3$ and $\Omega+1$ and $3$ are both $\in$-incomparable and $\subseteq$-incomparable.

Proof. Since $\neg \mathsf{LEM}$, we have that $\Omega \neq 2$. We also clearly have that $\Omega \neq 0$ and $\Omega \neq 1$, so $\Omega \notin 3$. Since $\Omega \in \Omega + 1$, we have that $\Omega + 1 \neq 3$. Since $\Omega \notin 0$, $\Omega \notin 1$, and $\Omega \notin 2$, we have that $\Omega+1$ is not equal to $0$, $1$, or $2$, whereby $\Omega + 1 \notin 3$.

Assume for the sake of contradiction that $3 \in \Omega + 1$. By definition, this means that $3 \in \Omega$ or $3 = \Omega$. $\Omega$ is not $3$ (because $2$ is not a subset of $1 =\{0\}$), but $3$ is also not an element of $\Omega$ (because $3$ is also not a subset of $1$). Therefore $3 \notin \Omega +1$.

Assume for the sake of contradiction that $3 \subseteq \Omega + 1$. This implies that $2 \in \Omega +1$, so either $2 \in \Omega$ or $2 = \Omega$. The second fails because $\neg \mathsf{LEM}$, and the first fails because $2$ is not a subset of $1$. Therefore $3 \not \subseteq \Omega +1$.

Finally, we already know that $\Omega \notin 3$, so is must be that $\Omega + 1 \not \subseteq 3$. $\square$

This implies that in a lot of sheaf toposes (and in the corresponding models of $\mathsf{IZF}$), you don't get negative trichotomy for this definition of ordinal. For instance, $\neg \mathsf{LEM}$ holds in sheaves over Cantor space and the reals. $\neg \mathsf{LEM}$ also holds in the effective topos/realizability model of $\mathsf{IZF}$. Moreover the proposition implies the following:

Corollary. The following are equivalent (where all quantifiers range over ordinals).

  1. $\neg \neg \forall \alpha \beta (\alpha \in \beta \vee \alpha = \beta \vee \beta \in \alpha)$
  2. $\neg \neg \forall \alpha \beta (\alpha \subseteq \beta \vee \beta \subseteq \alpha)$
  3. $\forall \alpha \beta \neg \neg (\alpha \in \beta \vee \alpha = \beta \vee \beta \in \alpha)$
  4. $\forall \alpha \beta \neg \neg (\alpha \subseteq \beta \vee \beta \subseteq \alpha)$
  5. $\neg\neg \mathsf{LEM}$

Proof. 5 clearly implies 1 and 2. 1 implies 3 and likewise 2 implies 4 by basic intuitionistic logic. 3 and 4 both imply 1 by instantiating $\alpha = \Omega +1$ and $\beta = 3$. $\square$

That said there are also a decent number of toposes in which $\neg\neg\mathsf{LEM}$ (and therefore negative trichotomy) does hold (assuming a classical world of sets). It holds in finite Kripke frames and therefore (equivalently) in presheaf toposes over finite posetal categories. In particular this means that negative trichotomy does in fact hold in the 'simplest non-classical topos' (i.e., presheaves over $\bullet \to \bullet$).

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    $\begingroup$ Nice. I have formalized most of this at github.com/metamath/set.mm/pull/4108 . Please speak up (on that pull request, I guess) if you have any questions or input about the formalization in metamath, or me listing you as a co-contributor there (for the informal proofs in the above answer). $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 3 at 6:39
  • $\begingroup$ The metamath formalization is up at us.metamath.org/ileuni/onntri35.html . Oddly enough the one part which isn't formalized yet is "5 clearly implies 1 and 2". I assume the intended proof is based on excluded middle implying ordinal trichotomy? This can of course be done (the HoTT book has a proof) but we haven't yet formalized that - see github.com/metamath/set.mm/issues/739 $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 5 at 15:00
  • $\begingroup$ I won't try to add comments for all our fine tuning in metamath but a look at us.metamath.org/ileuni/onntri35.html will show what we have done (including a formalization of the proof from the HoTT Book mentioned above). $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 10 at 5:03
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It's three decades since I wrote Intuitionistic Sets and Ordinals, at which time I knew how to express well founded relations as coalgebras, but I had very little understanding of the subject.

In recent years I have come back to this topic and written two substantial draft papers, the second being Ordinals as Coalgebras. So I would encourage people who are interested in constructive or categorical ordinals to look at those works.

Since it's more than three decades since I believed Excluded Middle, I have long since got out of the habit of looking for ways in which the classical ideas might almost hold. Really, constructive mathematics is much more interesting when you let it lead you where it wants to go, instead of tracking its heresies against classical logic.

However, I would point out that almost all of the (counter)examples in Ordinals as Coalgebras appear in the simplest non-classical topos, ie presheaves on a single arrow. The classical ideas about ordinals really are very fragile.

I do have a constructive result there (Lemma 9.13) that looks a bit like trichotomy: if the join $x\curlyvee y$ exists with respect to the reflexive(-transitive) closure of the well founded relation then $x$ and $y$ are comparable ($x\prec y$ or $x=y$ or $y\prec x$).

However, the purpose of writing that paper was not to give a new "official" account of ordinals using category theory, but to destroy the single notion.

The point is that set theory provides partial models for the (non-existent) free algebra for the covariant powerset functor. So there should be other, different kinds of ordinals that do the same for other functors and constructions.

See (http://www.paultaylor.eu/ordinals) for all the papers (including the old ones).

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    $\begingroup$ I'm sorry, but, between the various places where you explain that OP was somehow asking the β€œwrong” question, that everyone who still finds value in the law of excluded middle is an idiot, and that your new way of looking at things is better than the previous one, is there a place where you actually answer the question that was being asked? It's reasonable that you should want to promote your point of view, especially as your work was quoted in the question, but answers on MathOverflow are still meant to be answers, not explanations of the fact that the question is morally abhorrent. $\endgroup$
    – Gro-Tsen
    Commented Sep 21, 2023 at 19:38
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    $\begingroup$ I see your point about whether this answers the question but even if it doesn't quite fit the mathoverflow format I am glad to see some references to constructive literature on ordinals in case I do want to dig into this topic more deeply at some point. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 24, 2023 at 2:15

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