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I don't know if this is a known problem, but I didn't find any similar question.

Let's do some example to explain what I'm searching.

  1. Take $n=10$. We have $p=3$ odd prime number and also $p+n = 3+10=13$ prime, so $n=10$ is not valid
  2. Take $n=30$. We have $p=7$ odd prime number and also $p+n=7+30=37$ prime, so $n=30$ is not valid
  3. Take $n=138$. We have $p=11$ odd prime number and also $p+n=11+138=149$ prime, so $n=138$ is not valid

I wonder if there exist an even positive integer $n$ such that, for each odd prime number $p$, $p+n$ is not itself a prime.

The challenge is to prove that such an integer must exist, or prove that it cannot exist at all.

Any answers or comments will be appreciated.

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    $\begingroup$ This seems to be equivalent to asking whether every even positive integer is the difference of two primes, rather similar in spirit to Goldbach's conjecture. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 20:45
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    $\begingroup$ Related: Name of a conjecture on difference of prime numbers? $\endgroup$
    – Glorfindel
    Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 21:13
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    $\begingroup$ @GeoffRobinson: An important difference in spirit is that the "expected number" of pairs of primes summing to an even $n$ is finite, while the expected number of pairs of primes with difference $n$ is infinite. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 21:13
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    $\begingroup$ It has long been conjectured that every even integer is a difference of two primes, indeed, is infinitely often a difference of two primes, indeed, is infinitely often a difference of two consecutive primes. [exception to the last for the even integer zero] $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 5, 2021 at 22:16
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    $\begingroup$ See Polignac's conjecture $\endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Commented Nov 6, 2021 at 0:09

2 Answers 2

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The answer is no, if you believe the Hardy-Littlewood $k$-Tuple Conjecture. Let $\pi_{k}(x)$ denote the number of primes $p\leq x$ such that $p+2k$ is also prime. Then the conjecture predicts $$ \pi_{k}(x) \sim C(k) \int_{2}^{x} \frac{dt}{(\ln t)^{2}}, ​ $$ where $$ C(k) = 2\prod_{p>2} \frac{p(p-2)}{(p-1)^2} \prod_{\substack{p\mid k\\ p>2}} \frac{p-1}{p-2}. $$

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The k-tupe conjecture states that for a fixed even number $k$, they are infinitly primes $p$ satisfying $p$ and $p+k$ are both primes.

In your case you asked if exists an even number $n$ with $n+p$ it not prime for all $p\in\mathbb{P}$, well the answer depending on the k-tuple conjecture is no !

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    $\begingroup$ The k-tuple conjecture is a much stronger statement than the one you mention. $\endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Commented Nov 6, 2021 at 0:08

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